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Each entry lists the question as it was put to the system, the reference answer a person verified against the cited page, the source document with page numbers, the question type (single fact or multi-source), and the difficulty grade. All source documents are public and openly licensed, so any answer can be re-checked against the original PDF. The answers shown are the verified reference answers from the gold set, not the system's output; to see the system answer, put the same question to the live demo.
In the Allianz Risk Barometer 2023, what percentage of responses ranked Macroeconomic developments as a top global business risk?
25%
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · hard
How many Allianz Risk Barometer 2023 respondents came from large-size companies (over $500mn annual revenue), and what share of the total did they represent?
1,281 respondents (47%)
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
The Allianz Risk Barometer 2023 surveyed how many respondents, and which risk did they rank as the #1 global business risk for 2023 (with what share of responses)?
2,712 respondents; Cyber incidents ranked #1 at 34%
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, pp. 2, 4 · multi-source · medium
How did the number of risk-management experts surveyed for the Allianz Risk Barometer change across the 2021, 2022, and 2023 editions?
2,769 (2021) -> 2,650 (2022) -> 2,712 (2023)
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2021.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In JPMorgan Chase's 2023 Annual Report Financial Highlights, what was total net revenue for the year ended December 31, 2023?
$158,104 million (about $158.1 billion)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was JPMorgan Chase's full-year 2023 net income?
$49,552 million (about $49.6 billion)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was JPMorgan Chase's return on tangible common equity (ROTCE) for full-year 2023?
21%
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was JPMorgan Chase's Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio at year-end 2023?
15.0%
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was JPMorgan Chase's diluted earnings per share for full-year 2023?
$16.23
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What were JPMorgan Chase's total assets at year-end 2023?
$3,875,393 million (about $3.9 trillion)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
What was Citigroup's net income for full-year 2023?
$9,228 million (about $9.2 billion)
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · single fact · hard
What were Citigroup's total revenues, net of interest expense, for 2023?
$78,462 million
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · single fact · hard
What was Citigroup's diluted earnings per share for 2023?
$4.04
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · single fact · hard
What were Goldman Sachs's net earnings for full-year 2023?
$8,516 million (about $8.5 billion)
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
What were Goldman Sachs's total net revenues for 2023?
$46,254 million
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · medium
What was Goldman Sachs's diluted earnings per common share for 2023?
$22.87
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
Among JPMorgan Chase, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs, which reported the highest full-year 2023 net income (net earnings for Goldman), and what were the three figures?
JPMorgan highest at $49,552M (~$49.6B); Citigroup $9,228M (~$9.2B); Goldman Sachs $8,516M (~$8.5B)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 10, 144 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, pp. 90, 150 · multi-source · hard
What was Bank of America's net income for full-year 2023?
$26,515 million (about $26.5 billion)
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · hard
What was Bank of America's revenue, net of interest expense, for 2023?
$98,581 million
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · medium
What was Bank of America's diluted earnings per common share for 2023?
$3.08
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · hard
What was Bank of America's return on average tangible common shareholders' equity for 2023?
13.46%
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · hard
Rank JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs by 2023 diluted earnings per share, from highest to lowest.
Goldman Sachs $22.87 > JPMorgan Chase $16.23 > Citigroup $4.04 > Bank of America $3.08
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 6, 66 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 6, 144 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, pp. 85, 150 · multi-source · hard
What was Munich Re Group's net result for full-year 2023?
EUR 4,597 million (about EUR 4.6 billion)
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Munich Re's property-casualty reinsurance combined ratio for 2023?
85.2%
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Munich Re's earnings per share for 2023?
EUR 33.88
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Munich Re Group's operating result for 2023?
EUR 5,702 million
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
What was the Allianz Group's operating profit for full-year 2023?
EUR 14.75 billion
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · single fact · hard
What was the Allianz Group's net income attributable to shareholders for 2023?
EUR 8.54 billion
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · single fact · hard
Compare the 2023 bottom-line profit of the Allianz Group and Munich Re Group: what did each report, and which was larger?
Allianz net income attributable to shareholders EUR 8.54bn was larger; Munich Re net result EUR 4,597m (~EUR 4.6bn)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
What was NVIDIA's total revenue for the fiscal year ended January 28, 2024?
$60,922 million (about $60.9 billion)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · medium
What was NVIDIA's net income for the fiscal year ended January 28, 2024?
$29,760 million (about $29.8 billion)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
What was NVIDIA's diluted earnings per share for the fiscal year ended January 28, 2024?
$11.93
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
What were Apple's total net sales for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$391,035 million (about $391 billion)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What was Apple's net income for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$93,736 million (about $93.7 billion)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What were Apple's iPhone net sales for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$201,183 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What were Apple's net sales in Greater China for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$66,952 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In their most recent fiscal year, which had higher net income, Apple or NVIDIA, and what were the two figures?
Apple was higher: $93,736M (FY ended Sep 28, 2024) vs NVIDIA $29,760M (FY ended Jan 28, 2024)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
What was Swiss Re's net income attributable to common shareholders for 2023?
USD 3,214 million (about USD 3.2 billion)
SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, p. 14 · single fact · hard
What were Swiss Re's total revenues in 2023?
USD 49,800 million
SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, p. 14 · single fact · medium
What was Zurich Life Insurance Company Ltd's net income after taxes for 2023?
CHF 117 million
Zurich-Life-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 6 · single fact · hard
What were Zurich Life Insurance Company Ltd's gross written premiums in 2023?
CHF 1,215 million
Zurich-Life-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 6 · single fact · medium
What was UBS Group's reported net profit attributable to shareholders for 2023?
USD 27,849 million (about USD 27.8 billion)
UBS-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 83 · single fact · hard
What was UBS Group's return on CET1 capital for 2023?
42.3%
UBS-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 83 · single fact · hard
What was Helvetia Group's IFRS net income for 2023?
CHF 301.3 million
Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Helvetia's combined ratio for 2023?
97.4%
Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Helvetia's business volume in 2023?
CHF 11,311.3 million
Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
UBS reported an unusually large net profit attributable to shareholders for 2023 - how much was it, and how much of that figure was negative goodwill from the Credit Suisse acquisition?
Reported net profit attributable to shareholders was USD 27,849m, of which USD 27,748m was negative goodwill from the Credit Suisse acquisition
UBS-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 77, 83 · multi-source · hard
What was Novartis's net income from continuing operations for 2024?
USD 11,939 million (about USD 11.9 billion)
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 45 · single fact · hard
What were Novartis's net sales from continuing operations in 2024?
USD 50,317 million (about USD 50.3 billion)
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 45 · single fact · medium
What was Novartis's total basic earnings per share (USD) for 2024?
USD 5.92
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 45 · single fact · hard
What was Roche's IFRS net income for 2024?
CHF 9.2 billion
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, p. 38 · single fact · hard
What were Roche Group's total sales in 2024?
CHF 60.5 billion
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, p. 38 · single fact · hard
For 2024, what was Novartis's net income from continuing operations on an IFRS basis versus a core (non-IFRS) basis?
IFRS net income from continuing operations USD 11.9 billion (USD 11,939m); core net income from continuing operations USD 15.8 billion
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, pp. 45, 46 · multi-source · hard
What were Novartis's 2024 net sales from continuing operations in its Oncology therapeutic area?
USD 14,740 million
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 46 · single fact · hard
Rank JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs by 2023 total revenue, from highest to lowest.
JPMorgan $158,104m > Bank of America $98,581m > Citigroup $78,462m > Goldman Sachs $46,254m
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
Comparing 2023 combined ratios, which had the lower (better) figure: Munich Re's property-casualty reinsurance or Helvetia?
Munich Re was lower/better at 85.2% (P-C reinsurance) versus Helvetia at 97.4%
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
How did Apple's and NVIDIA's most-recent-fiscal-year top-line compare: Apple's net sales versus NVIDIA's revenue?
Apple net sales $391,035m (FY ended Sep 28, 2024) was roughly 6.4x NVIDIA's revenue of $60,922m (FY ended Jan 28, 2024)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · medium
Comparing 2023 return on tangible common equity (ROTCE), which was higher: JPMorgan Chase or Bank of America, and by how much?
JPMorgan was higher at 21% versus Bank of America's 13.46% - a gap of about 7.5 percentage points
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · hard
Among Apple, JPMorgan Chase, NVIDIA, and Bank of America, which reported the largest net income in its most recent fiscal year?
Apple, with net income of $93,736m, ahead of JPMorgan $49,552m, NVIDIA $29,760m, and Bank of America $26,515m
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · hard
For 2023, what were Goldman Sachs's total net earnings versus its net earnings applicable to common shareholders, and what accounts for the difference?
Net earnings $8,516m; net earnings applicable to common shareholders $7,907m; the ~$609m difference is preferred stock dividends
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
What were Bank of America's total assets at year-end 2023?
$3,180,151 million (about $3.18 trillion)
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · hard
What were Apple's Services net sales for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$96,169 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What was NVIDIA's operating income for the fiscal year ended January 28, 2024?
$32,972 million
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's net income for full-year 2023?
$19,142 million (about $19.1 billion)
WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's diluted earnings per common share for 2023?
$4.83
WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's return on average tangible common equity (ROTCE) for 2023?
13.1%
WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
What were Berkshire Hathaway's net earnings attributable to Berkshire Hathaway shareholders for 2023?
$96,223 million (about $96.2 billion)
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 96 · single fact · hard
How much did Berkshire Hathaway report in investment and derivative contract gains (losses) for 2023?
$74,855 million in gains
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 96 · single fact · hard
Berkshire Hathaway's bottom line swung dramatically between 2022 and 2023 - what were net earnings attributable to shareholders in each year, and what drove the swing?
A $96,223m profit in 2023 versus a $(22,759)m loss in 2022; the swing was driven mainly by investment and derivative contract results - a $74,855m gain in 2023 versus a $(67,899)m loss in 2022
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 96 · multi-source · hard
Rank the five largest U.S. banks - JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs - by 2023 net income, from highest to lowest.
JPMorgan $49,552m > Bank of America $26,515m > Wells Fargo $19,142m > Citigroup $9,228m > Goldman Sachs $8,516m
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
Rank JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, and Wells Fargo by 2023 return on tangible common equity (ROTCE).
JPMorgan 21% > Bank of America 13.46% > Wells Fargo 13.1%
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
By roughly what multiple did NVIDIA's net income increase from fiscal 2023 (ended Jan 29, 2023) to fiscal 2024 (ended Jan 28, 2024)?
About 6.8x (from $4,368 million to $29,760 million)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · single fact · hard
What were JPMorgan Chase's total deposits at year-end 2023?
$2,400,688 million (about $2.4 trillion)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Apple's operating income for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$123,216 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) ratio at year-end 2023?
11.43%
WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
How did Citigroup's and Bank of America's net income each change from 2021 to 2023 - did they rise or fall?
Both fell: Citigroup declined from $21,952m (2021) to $9,228m (2023); Bank of America declined from $31,978m (2021) to $26,515m (2023)
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · hard
Comparing year-end 2023 CET1 capital ratios, how did JPMorgan Chase and Wells Fargo compare?
JPMorgan's CET1 ratio was 15.0%, higher than Wells Fargo's 11.43%
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · medium
Rank JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, and Wells Fargo by total assets at year-end 2023.
JPMorgan $3,875,393m > Bank of America $3,180,151m > Wells Fargo $1,932,468m
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · medium
Between their two most recent fiscal years, whose net income rose and whose fell - Apple's or NVIDIA's?
NVIDIA's rose sharply (from $4,368m to $29,760m) while Apple's fell (from $96,995m to $93,736m)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
What were Apple's net sales in the Americas segment for the twelve months ended September 28, 2024?
$167,045 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What was Bank of America's efficiency ratio for 2023?
66.79%
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · single fact · hard
What was Citigroup's net interest income for 2023?
$54,900 million
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · single fact · hard
What dividend per share did Munich Re report for 2023?
EUR 15.00
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
Rank these six financial institutions by 2023 net profit (in USD): JPMorgan Chase, UBS, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs.
JPMorgan $49,552m > UBS $27,849m > Bank of America $26,515m > Wells Fargo $19,142m > Citigroup $9,228m > Goldman Sachs $8,516m (note: UBS's figure was inflated by ~$27.7bn negative goodwill from the Credit Suisse acquisition)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · UBS-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 83 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · hard
In their most recent fiscal years, how did Apple's net income compare to that of JPMorgan Chase, the most profitable U.S. bank?
Apple's net income of $93,736m was roughly 1.9x JPMorgan's $49,552m
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · medium
What was Vontobel's group net profit for the first half of 2024?
CHF 130.3 million
Vontobel-Half-Year-Report-2024.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · hard
What were Vontobel's total client assets as of 30 June 2024?
CHF 291.1 billion
Vontobel-Half-Year-Report-2024.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · hard
What were Apple's total assets as of September 28, 2024?
$364,980 million (about $365 billion)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What was Apple's total shareholders' equity as of September 28, 2024?
$56,950 million
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
For the first half of 2024, what were Vontobel's operating income, group net profit, and assets under management (AuM)?
Operating income CHF 727.7m; group net profit CHF 130.3m; assets under management CHF 225.9 billion
Vontobel-Half-Year-Report-2024.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
For its fiscal year ended September 28, 2024, how did Apple's net income compare to its total shareholders' equity?
Apple's net income ($93,736m) actually exceeded its total shareholders' equity ($56,950m) - i.e., its annual profit was larger than its entire book equity, a result of large share buybacks (the balance sheet carries a $19,154m accumulated deficit)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
What was NVIDIA's Data Center revenue for fiscal year 2024 (ended January 28, 2024)?
$47.5 billion (up 217% year over year)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 136 · single fact · hard
What was NVIDIA's gross margin for fiscal year 2024 (ended January 28, 2024)?
72.7% (up from 56.9% the prior year)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 136 · single fact · hard
What were Goldman Sachs's total assets at year-end 2023?
$1,641,594 million (about $1.64 trillion)
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 151 · single fact · hard
What were Goldman Sachs's total deposits at year-end 2023?
$428,417 million
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 151 · single fact · hard
By what percentages did NVIDIA's revenue, operating income, and net income each grow in fiscal year 2024?
Revenue up 126%, operating income up 681%, and net income up 581%
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 136 · multi-source · hard
What was Citigroup's Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio under the Basel III Standardized Approach at year-end 2023?
13.4%
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 36 · single fact · hard
How did Citigroup's year-end 2023 CET1 capital ratio differ under the Basel III Standardized Approach versus the Advanced Approaches?
13.4% under the Standardized Approach versus 12.1% under the Advanced Approaches
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 36 · multi-source · hard
How many respondents and countries were represented in the 2022 Allianz Risk Barometer?
2,650 respondents from 89 countries and territories
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
In the 2022 Allianz Risk Barometer, how many respondents came from large-size companies (over $500mn annual revenue), and what share was that?
1,208 respondents (46%)
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
Which edition (by number) was the 2022 Allianz Risk Barometer?
The 11th Allianz Risk Barometer
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · medium
How did the scope of the Allianz Risk Barometer change from the 2022 to the 2023 edition, in respondents and countries?
Respondents rose from 2,650 to 2,712 and countries/territories from 89 to 94
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 2 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
How many respondents and countries were represented in the 2021 Allianz Risk Barometer?
2,769 respondents from a record 92 countries and territories
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2021.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
Which edition (by number) was the 2021 Allianz Risk Barometer?
The 10th Allianz Risk Barometer
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2021.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
How did the number of countries and territories represented in the Allianz Risk Barometer change across the 2021, 2022, and 2023 editions?
92 (2021) -> 89 (2022) -> 94 (2023) - it dipped before reaching a record
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2021.pdf, p. 3 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 2 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
What was the Allianz Group's operating profit for the 2022 financial year?
EUR 14.16 bn (exceeding the EUR 13.40 bn target)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 28 · single fact · hard
By how much did Allianz Group's operating profit grow in 2021, and to what level?
Operating profit increased by 25% to EUR 13.4 bn
Allianz-Group-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · medium
What were Allianz Group's total revenues in 2022?
EUR 153 bn (up 3%, a record at the time)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · medium
How did Allianz Group's operating profit evolve across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
EUR 13.4 bn (2021) -> EUR 14.16 bn (2022) -> EUR 14.75 bn (2023) - rising each year
Allianz-Group-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 4 · Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 28 · Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · multi-source · hard
What was Wells Fargo's net income in 2020?
$3.3 billion (diluted EPS $0.41)
WellsFargo-Annual-2020.pdf, pp. 7, 40 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's net income in 2021?
$21.5 billion (diluted EPS $4.95)
WellsFargo-Annual-2021.pdf, pp. 5, 17 · single fact · hard
What was Wells Fargo's net income in 2022?
$13.2 billion (diluted EPS $3.14)
WellsFargo-Annual-2022.pdf, pp. 2, 14, 17 · single fact · hard
How did Wells Fargo's annual net income move across 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$3.3bn (2020) -> $21.5bn (2021) -> $13.2bn (2022) -> $19.142bn (2023): a sharp COVID-year trough, a rebound, a dip from operating losses, then recovery - non-monotonic
WellsFargo-Annual-2020.pdf, p. 7 · WellsFargo-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 5 · WellsFargo-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 2 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
What was Berkshire Hathaway's compounded annual gain in per-share market value over 1965-2023, and how did it compare with the S&P 500?
Berkshire 19.8% vs the S&P 500's 10.2% (with dividends)
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 19 · single fact · medium
What was Berkshire Hathaway's overall gain in per-share market value from 1964 to 2023?
4,384,748% (versus 31,223% for the S&P 500 with dividends)
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 19 · single fact · medium
In 2022, how did the percentage change in Berkshire Hathaway's per-share market value compare with the S&P 500's total return?
Berkshire +4.0% versus the S&P 500 at -18.1% - Berkshire outperformed in a down market
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 19 · single fact · hard
What was Munich Re's (Group) consolidated net result in 2020?
EUR 1,211 million
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
Which of Munich Re's operating segments delivered the largest net result in 2023?
Property-casualty reinsurance, with a net result of EUR 2,448 million (the largest of the five segments)
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 78, 80, 83, 85, 86 · multi-source · hard
In 2023, how did Munich Re's reinsurance field of business compare with ERGO in total net result?
Reinsurance ~EUR 3,876m (L&H 1,428 + P-C 2,448) versus ERGO ~EUR 721m (183 + 252 + 286) - reinsurance contributed the large majority
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 78, 80, 83, 85, 86 · multi-source · hard
Within Munich Re's reinsurance business in 2023, which line had the higher net result - life & health or property-casualty - and by how much?
Property-casualty reinsurance (EUR 2,448m) exceeded life & health reinsurance (EUR 1,428m) by about EUR 1,020m
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 78, 80 · multi-source · medium
By how much did Munich Re's (Group) consolidated net result change from 2022 to 2023?
From EUR 3,419m (2022) to EUR 4,597m (2023) - an increase of about EUR 1,178m (~34%)
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 2 · MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · medium
What was Citigroup's net income in 2022?
$14.8 billion, or $7.00 per share
Citi-10K-2022.pdf, p. 6 · single fact · hard
How did Citigroup's net income move across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$22.0bn (2021) -> $14.8bn (2022) -> $9.2bn (2023): a steady decline each year
Citi-10K-2022.pdf, p. 6 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · hard
In 2022, which Citigroup segment earned more net income - the Institutional Clients Group (ICG) or Personal Banking & Wealth Management (PBWM) - and by roughly how much?
ICG ($10.7 billion) earned far more than PBWM ($3.3 billion) - about $7.4 billion more
Citi-10K-2022.pdf, pp. 7, 8 · multi-source · medium
How did Citigroup's CET1 Capital ratio (Basel III Standardized Approach) change across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
12.2% (2021) -> 13.0% (2022) -> 13.4% (2023): rising each year
Citi-10K-2022.pdf, p. 7 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 36 · multi-source · medium
What was JPMorgan Chase's net income for 2022?
$37.7 billion ($37,676 million), diluted EPS $12.09
JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 67 · single fact · hard
How did JPMorgan Chase's annual net income change across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$48.3bn (2021) -> $37.7bn (2022) -> $49.6bn (2023): a sharp dip in 2022 then a new record in 2023
JPMorgan-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 71 · JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 67 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 87 · multi-source · hard
In 2023, which JPMorgan segment had higher net income - the Corporate & Investment Bank (CIB) or Commercial Banking (CB)?
The CIB ($14 billion) earned more than Commercial Banking ($6.1 billion record)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 70, 74 · multi-source · medium
How did JPMorgan's Commercial Banking net income change from 2022 to 2023?
From $4.2 billion (2022) to a record $6.1 billion (2023) - up about 46%
JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 54 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 74 · multi-source · medium
In 2022, how did JPMorgan's Consumer & Community Banking (CCB) net income compare with Commercial Banking (CB)?
CCB earned $14.9 billion versus Commercial Banking's $4.2 billion - CCB was far larger
JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, pp. 46, 54 · multi-source · medium
What was Bank of America's net income in 2022?
$27.5 billion, or $3.19 per diluted share
BofA-10K-2022.pdf, p. 30 · single fact · hard
How did Bank of America's net income move across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$32.0bn (2021) -> $27.5bn (2022) -> $26.5bn (2023): a decline each year
BofA-10K-2022.pdf, p. 30 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · medium
Among JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, and Citigroup, which ones saw net income fall in BOTH 2022 and 2023 (versus the prior year)?
Bank of America (32.0->27.5->26.5) and Citigroup (22.0->14.8->9.2) declined in both years; JPMorgan did NOT (48.3->37.7->49.6, it rebounded to a record in 2023)
JPMorgan-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 2 · JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 67 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 87 · BofA-10K-2022.pdf, p. 30 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · Citi-10K-2022.pdf, p. 6 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · hard
In 2023, which Swiss Re reinsurance unit earned more net income - Property & Casualty Reinsurance (P&C Re) or Life & Health Reinsurance (L&H Re) - and by roughly how much?
P&C Re ($1.9 billion) earned far more than L&H Re ($976 million) - roughly $0.9 billion more
SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, p. 16 · multi-source · medium
In 2024, how did sales of Roche's Pharmaceuticals Division compare with its Diagnostics Division?
Pharmaceuticals CHF 46.2 billion (+8%) versus Diagnostics CHF 14.3 billion (+4%) - Pharma was roughly 3.2x larger
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, pp. 38, 48 · multi-source · medium
How do Roche's 2024 Pharmaceuticals and Diagnostics division sales add up to its group sales?
Pharmaceuticals CHF 46.2bn + Diagnostics CHF 14.3bn = about CHF 60.5 billion in group sales
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, pp. 38, 48 · multi-source · medium
What were sales of Roche's Pharmaceuticals Division in 2024?
CHF 46.2 billion (up 8%)
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, pp. 38, 48 · single fact · medium
How did Novartis's and Roche's 2024 reported net sales compare, and what subtlety must be noted when comparing them?
Roche CHF 60.5 billion vs Novartis USD 50.3 billion ($50,317m); they report in different currencies (CHF vs USD), so a like-for-like comparison requires a currency conversion rather than comparing the raw numbers
Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, p. 38 · Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 45 · multi-source · hard
What was NVIDIA's full-year Gaming revenue in fiscal 2024?
$10.4 billion (up 15%)
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · medium
In NVIDIA's fiscal 2024, how does the Compute & Networking reportable segment revenue compare with the Data Center market-platform revenue?
They are nearly identical - Compute & Networking segment ~$47.4 billion versus Data Center platform ~$47.5 billion - but they are different reporting cuts (operating-segment grouping vs end-market platform), not the same line
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 33, 136 · multi-source · hard
In fiscal 2024, how did NVIDIA's Data Center revenue compare with its Gaming revenue?
Data Center ~$47.5 billion vastly exceeded Gaming ~$10.4 billion - roughly 4.6x larger
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 24, 136 · multi-source · medium
What was UBS Group's full-year net profit in 2024?
USD 5.1 billion (USD 5,085 million) attributable to shareholders
UBS-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, pp. 4, 67 · single fact · hard
Why was UBS Group's 2024 net profit so much lower than its 2023 net profit?
2023 net profit (~USD 27.8bn) was inflated by a one-off negative-goodwill gain (~USD 27bn) from absorbing Credit Suisse; 2024 net profit of USD 5.1bn reflects the underlying business without that one-off, so the ~USD 22bn drop is not an operational decline
UBS-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 83 · UBS-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, p. 67 · multi-source · hard
In 2023, how did Allianz SE's (parent company) net income compare with the Allianz Group's consolidated net income attributable to shareholders, and why is the comparison subtle?
Allianz SE (parent, German GAAP/HGB) net income was EUR 8,051m, surprisingly close to the Allianz Group's consolidated (IFRS) net income to shareholders of about EUR 8.54bn - but they are different reporting entities and accounting frameworks (parent-only HGB, driven by dividends from subsidiaries, vs consolidated IFRS), so the closeness is coincidental rather than a parent-is-a-subset relationship
Allianz-SE-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 14 · Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · multi-source · hard
What was Helvetia's IFRS net income in 2024?
CHF 502.4 million (up 66.8% from CHF 301.3 million in 2023)
Helvetia-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
How did Helvetia's IFRS net income change from 2023 to 2024, and what drove the change?
It rose from CHF 301.3m to CHF 502.4m (+66.8%), driven largely by a turnaround in non-life underlying earnings (up ~78% to CHF 357.1m) and an improved combined ratio (97.7% to 95.0%)
Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Helvetia-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · medium
Which of Allianz's three business segments generated the most operating profit in 2022?
Property-Casualty, with EUR 6.2 billion - ahead of Life/Health (EUR 5.3bn) and Asset Management (EUR 3.2bn)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · medium
In 2022, Allianz's three operating segments (P-C, Life/Health, Asset Management) summed to more than the group operating profit. What does that imply about the Corporate and Other segment?
The three segments sum to ~EUR 14.7bn (6.2 + 5.3 + 3.2) but group operating profit was EUR 14.16bn, so Corporate and Other contributed a net negative (~ -EUR 0.5bn)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, pp. 4, 28 · multi-source · hard
What operating profit did Allianz's Asset Management segment generate in 2022?
EUR 3.2 billion (a decline of 8.3%)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · hard
Rank Swiss Re's three business segments by 2023 net income.
P&C Reinsurance ~USD 1.9 billion > Life & Health Reinsurance USD 976 million > Corporate Solutions USD 678 million
SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, pp. 16, 17 · multi-source · hard
Within Munich Re's ERGO field of business in 2023, which of the three ERGO segments had the highest net result, and what did the three sum to?
ERGO International was highest at EUR 286m, ahead of ERGO Property-casualty Germany (EUR 252m) and ERGO Life and Health Germany (EUR 183m); the three sum to ~EUR 721m
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 83, 85, 86 · multi-source · hard
How did the 2023 bottom-line results of the world's two largest reinsurers - Munich Re and Swiss Re - compare, and what must be noted when comparing them?
Munich Re's consolidated net result was EUR 4,597m while Swiss Re's net income was USD 3,214m; Munich Re was larger, but the two report in different currencies (EUR vs USD), so a precise comparison needs a currency conversion
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 152 · SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, p. 140 · multi-source · hard
In fiscal 2024, one indirect customer (which purchases NVIDIA's products through system integrators and distributors) represented approximately 19% of NVIDIA's total revenue. Roughly how many dollars is that?
About $11.6 billion (19% of total revenue of $60,922 million).
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 140, 150 · multi-source · hard
Approximately what return on assets did Apple achieve in fiscal 2024 (net income relative to total assets)?
About 26% - net income of $93,736m divided by total assets of $364,980m (~25.7%)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · medium
What was the #1 global business risk in the Allianz Risk Barometer in 2021, 2022, and 2023?
2021: Business Interruption (top of the 'Covid Trio'); 2022: Cyber incidents; 2023: Cyber incidents - so the top risk shifted from Business Interruption to Cyber and Cyber stayed #1
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2021.pdf, p. 4 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, p. 3 · Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2023.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
In the 2022 Allianz Risk Barometer, how did Cyber incidents and Business interruption rank relative to each other?
Cyber incidents ranked #1 with Business interruption the very close runner-up - the two were essentially neck-and-neck at the top (around 41-44% of responses)
Allianz-Risk-Barometer-2022.pdf, pp. 3, 6 · multi-source · medium
Approximately what return on assets did Goldman Sachs achieve in 2023 (net earnings relative to total assets)?
About 0.5% if computed as net earnings / period-end total assets ($8,516M / $1,641,594M ~ 0.52%); Goldman's own REPORTED return on average assets was 0.84%. Accept either.
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, pp. 150, 151 · multi-source · medium
Which of Allianz's business segments generated the most operating profit in 2023?
Property-Casualty, which topped EUR 6.9 billion - ahead of Life/Health (EUR 5.2bn) and Asset Management (EUR 3.1bn)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 4, 122 · multi-source · medium
How did the operating profits of Allianz's three business segments change from 2022 to 2023?
Property-Casualty rose (EUR 6.2bn -> 6.9bn), while Life/Health was roughly flat-to-down (5.3 -> 5.2) and Asset Management edged down (3.2 -> 3.1) - P-C drove the group's growth
Allianz-Group-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 4 · Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
Allianz's three operating segments summed to more than its 2023 group operating profit of EUR 14.75bn. What does that imply about Corporate and Other?
The three segments sum to ~EUR 15.2bn (6.9 + 5.2 + 3.1), above the group's EUR 14.75bn, so Corporate and Other was a net negative (~ -EUR 0.45bn)
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 4, 26, 122 · multi-source · hard
Why was Berkshire Hathaway's 2023 GAAP net earnings (~$96.2 billion) so much larger than its operating earnings (~$37.4 billion)?
The ~$59bn gap is driven by investment and derivative gains - Berkshire reported about $74.9 billion of investment gains in 2023 - which GAAP includes in net earnings but which Berkshire excludes from 'operating earnings'; Buffett stresses operating earnings because the GAAP figure swings wildly with mark-to-market on the equity portfolio
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, pp. 13, 96 · multi-source · hard
What were Berkshire Hathaway's total operating earnings in 2023?
$37,350 million (about $37.4 billion), up from $30,853 million in 2022
Berkshire-AnnualReport-2023.pdf, p. 13 · single fact · hard
In fiscal 2024, how did NVIDIA's gross margin compare with its operating margin?
Gross margin was 72.7%, while operating margin was about 54% (operating income $32,972m on revenue $60,922m) - a ~18-point gap from operating expenses
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 136, 150 · multi-source · medium
Rank JPMorgan, Citigroup, and Wells Fargo by their year-end 2023 CET1 capital ratio.
JPMorgan 15.0% > Citigroup 13.4% (Standardized) > Wells Fargo 11.43%
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 36 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · medium
Among Allianz, Munich Re, and Swiss Re, which reported the largest 2023 bottom-line result, and what caveat applies?
Allianz was largest (net income to shareholders ~EUR 8.54bn), ahead of Munich Re (EUR 4,597m) and Swiss Re (USD 3,214m); the caveat is that Swiss Re reports in USD while the German insurers report in EUR, so a precise ranking needs a currency conversion
Allianz-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 26 · MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 71 · SwissRe-Financial-Report-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
In 2023, which of Goldman Sachs's three segments had the largest net revenues and which had the smallest?
Largest was Global Banking & Markets at $30.00 billion; smallest was Platform Solutions at $2.38 billion (Asset & Wealth Management was in between, ~$13.9bn)
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, pp. 85, 96, 104 · multi-source · hard
Among Goldman Sachs, JPMorgan, NVIDIA, and Apple, which reported the highest diluted EPS in its latest annual report?
Goldman Sachs, at $22.87 - ahead of JPMorgan ($16.23), NVIDIA ($11.93, fiscal 2024) and Apple ($6.08, fiscal 2024)
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 204 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
How did Munich Re's 2023 property-casualty reinsurance combined ratio compare with Helvetia's combined ratio, and what scope difference matters?
Munich Re's P-C reinsurance combined ratio was about 85.2% versus Helvetia's ~97.4% - Munich Re's was far stronger (lower), but the two are not like-for-like: Munich Re's is a reinsurance-segment ratio while Helvetia's is a primary group non-life ratio
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Helvetia-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
How did Novartis's and Roche's 2024 net income compare, and what two subtleties matter?
Novartis net income from continuing operations was USD 11,939m while Roche's IFRS net income was CHF 9.2bn; the subtleties are (1) different currencies (USD vs CHF) and (2) Novartis's figure is 'continuing operations' (post-Sandoz spin-off), so the two aren't directly comparable without care
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 45 · Roche-Annual-Report-2024.pdf, p. 38 · multi-source · hard
How does JPMorgan Chase's total assets compare in size with Apple's, and why is that expected?
JPMorgan's total assets (~$3.875 trillion) are roughly 10-11x Apple's (~$365 billion); this reflects that a bank's balance sheet (loans, securities, deposits) is structurally far larger than a product company's, even when the product company is more valuable by market cap
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 206 · Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · medium
What were Novartis's net sales in the United States in 2024, and what share of total net sales was that?
USD 21,146 million, or 42% of total net sales
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, p. 31 · single fact · hard
In 2024, were Novartis's US net sales larger than its Oncology franchise sales?
Yes - US net sales were USD 21,146 million versus Oncology sales of USD 14,740 million (US larger by ~USD 6.4bn)
Novartis-Annual-2024.pdf, pp. 31, 46 · multi-source · hard
How did JPMorgan's and Goldman Sachs's deposit bases compare at year-end 2023?
JPMorgan held about $2,400,688 million in deposits versus Goldman Sachs's $428,417 million - roughly 5.6x larger, reflecting JPMorgan's vast consumer/commercial deposit franchise
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 151 · multi-source · medium
How did Wells Fargo's diluted EPS move across 2020 to 2023?
$0.41 (2020) -> $4.95 (2021) -> $3.14 (2022) -> $4.83 (2023): a COVID-year collapse, a sharp rebound, an operating-loss dip, then recovery
WellsFargo-Annual-2020.pdf, p. 23 · WellsFargo-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 17 · WellsFargo-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 10 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
How did Citigroup's diluted EPS change across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$10.14 (2021) -> $7.00 (2022) -> $4.04 (2023): a steep decline each year
Citi-10K-2022.pdf, p. 6 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · medium
How did JPMorgan Chase's diluted EPS change across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$15.36 (2021) -> $12.09 (2022) -> $16.23 (2023): a dip in 2022 then a new high in 2023
JPMorgan-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 71 · JPMorgan-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 67 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 87 · multi-source · medium
How did Bank of America's diluted EPS change across 2021, 2022, and 2023?
$3.57 (2021) -> $3.19 (2022) -> $3.08 (2023): a modest decline each year
BofA-10K-2022.pdf, p. 30 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · medium
Rank JPMorgan Chase's four main business segments by 2023 net income.
Consumer & Community Banking $21.2bn > Corporate & Investment Bank $14bn > Commercial Banking $6.1bn > Asset & Wealth Management $5.2bn
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 70, 74, 107, 119 · multi-source · hard
JPMorgan's four reportable segments summed to less than firmwide 2023 net income. What does the gap represent?
The four segments sum to ~$46.5bn (21.2 + 14 + 6.1 + 5.2) versus firmwide net income of $49.6bn, so the ~$3.1bn difference is the Corporate segment (a net positive in 2023)
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 70, 74, 87, 104, 107, 119, 122 · multi-source · hard
What was the net income of JPMorgan's Consumer & Community Banking (CCB) segment in 2023?
$21.2 billion (up 42%) - the firm's largest segment
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 107 · single fact · hard
Within Munich Re's reinsurance business in 2023, which line had the higher operating result - property-casualty or life & health reinsurance?
Property-casualty reinsurance had the higher operating result at EUR 3,052m, versus EUR 1,686m for life & health reinsurance
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 78, 80 · multi-source · medium
How did Citigroup's and JPMorgan's net interest income compare in 2023?
JPMorgan's net interest income (~$89.3 billion reported) was far larger than Citigroup's (~$54.9 billion) - roughly 1.6x
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 101 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, how did Citigroup's Markets business net income compare with its Wealth business?
Markets earned $4.0 billion versus Wealth's $346 million - Markets was over 10x larger
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 8, 9 · multi-source · medium
Which of Citigroup's businesses saw the steepest percentage decline in net income in 2023?
Among the businesses that stayed profitable, Wealth fell the most - down 64% (to $346M from $950M); next USPB -34%, Markets -32%, Services -5%. (Banking swung from a $383M profit to a $(44)M loss - a larger absolute swing, reported as 'NM'.)
Citi-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · hard
Rank Citigroup's main businesses by 2023 net income.
By 2023 net income: Services $4,671M > Markets $4,020M > U.S. Personal Banking $1,820M > Wealth $346M > Banking $(44)M (a small loss); with All Other (managed basis) a $(2,090)M loss. Services was the largest; Banking roughly broke even / posted a small loss.
Citi-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · hard
Did all of Citigroup's units make money in 2023?
No - two of Citigroup's units posted losses in 2023. Of the five reportable operating segments, three were profitable (Services net income $4.6bn, Markets $4.0bn, USPB $1.8bn) and Wealth earned $346 million, but the Banking segment reported a net loss of $48 million (versus $386 million net income the prior year). In addition, 'All Other' (managed basis) posted a net loss of $2.1 billion (versus net income of $163 million the prior year), driven largely by the $1.7 billion FDIC special assessment.
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 7, 8, 9 · multi-source · medium
Rank Munich Re's two reinsurance lines and its two ERGO Germany segments by 2023 operating result.
Property-casualty reinsurance EUR 3,052m > life & health reinsurance EUR 1,686m > ERGO Property-casualty Germany EUR 397m > ERGO Life and Health Germany EUR 197m
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 78, 80, 83, 85 · multi-source · hard
Roughly how much of NVIDIA's fiscal 2024 revenue came from inside the United States in dollar terms?
About $27 billion - 56% of revenue was from outside the US, so ~44% (of $60,922m total) was domestic, i.e. ~$26.8 billion
NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 140, 150 · multi-source · hard
Approximately what was Apple's asset turnover in fiscal 2024 (net sales relative to total assets)?
About 1.07x - net sales of $391,035m against total assets of $364,980m
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, how did Citigroup's Services business net income compare with its Markets business?
Services earned $4.6 billion versus Markets' $4.0 billion - Services was modestly larger
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 7, 8 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, how did Citigroup's US Personal Banking (USPB) net income compare with its Wealth business?
USPB earned $1.8 billion versus Wealth's $346 million - USPB was about 5x larger
Citi-10K-2023.pdf, pp. 8, 9 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, which ERGO segment had the higher net result - ERGO Property-casualty Germany or ERGO International?
ERGO International was slightly higher at EUR 286m versus ERGO Property-casualty Germany's EUR 252m
MunichRe-Group-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 85, 86 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, which had higher total revenue - Citigroup or Bank of America - and by roughly how much?
Bank of America ($98,581m) had higher total revenue than Citigroup ($78,462m) - about $20 billion more
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · medium
In their most recent fiscal years, how did Apple's net income compare with NVIDIA's?
Apple's net income (~$93.7 billion, FY2024) was roughly 3.1x NVIDIA's (~$29.8 billion, fiscal 2024)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, which Citigroup business had the higher net income - Banking or Services?
Services earned far more: net income of $4,671M, versus the Banking segment which posted a small net LOSS of $(44)M in 2023. (Banking's revenues were ~$4.6bn, but its net income was negative.)
Citi-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, how did JPMorgan's Consumer & Community Banking (CCB) net income compare with Asset & Wealth Management (AWM)?
CCB earned $21.2 billion versus AWM's $5.2 billion - CCB was about 4x larger
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, pp. 107, 119 · multi-source · medium
In their most recent fiscal years, how did Apple's operating income compare with NVIDIA's?
Apple's operating income (~$123.2 billion, FY2024) was roughly 3.7x NVIDIA's (~$33.0 billion, fiscal 2024)
Apple-10K-2024.pdf, p. 1 · NVIDIA-10K-2024.pdf, p. 150 · multi-source · medium
In 2023, how did Bank of America's net income compare with Citigroup's?
Bank of America earned $26.5 billion ($26,515m) versus Citigroup's $9.2 billion ($9,228m) - roughly 2.9x more
BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · multi-source · medium
Rank the five largest U.S. banks - JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs - by total assets at year-end 2023, from largest to smallest.
JPMorgan $3,875,393M; Bank of America $3,180,151M; Citigroup $2,411,834M; Wells Fargo $1,932,468M; Goldman Sachs $1,641,594M (largest to smallest).
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 11 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 95 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 106 · multi-source · hard
How did Wells Fargo's total revenue move across 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2023 (using each year's own annual report)?
Total revenue: 2020 $72,340M; 2021 $78,492M; 2022 $73,785M; 2023 $82,597M (each from that year's annual report; later filings restate prior years).
WellsFargo-Annual-2020.pdf, p. 23 · WellsFargo-Annual-2021.pdf, p. 25 · WellsFargo-Annual-2022.pdf, p. 10 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
Rank the five largest U.S. banks - JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs - by 2023 diluted earnings per share, from highest to lowest.
Goldman Sachs $22.87; JPMorgan $16.23; Wells Fargo $4.83; Citigroup $4.04; Bank of America $3.08 (highest to lowest 2023 diluted EPS).
Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 150 · JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 15 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 144 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · multi-source · hard
Rank JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, and Citigroup by total deposits at year-end 2023, from largest to smallest.
JPMorgan $2,400,688M; Bank of America $1,923,827M; Wells Fargo $1,358,173M; Citigroup $1,308,681M (largest to smallest).
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 66 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
Rank the five largest U.S. banks - JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, and Goldman Sachs - by their year-end 2023 CET1 capital ratio (Basel III Standardized), from highest to lowest.
JPMorgan 15.0%; Goldman Sachs 14.4%; Citigroup 13.4%; Bank of America 11.8%; Wells Fargo 11.43% (highest to lowest 2023 CET1 ratio, Standardized Approach).
JPMorgan-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 2 · Goldman-Annual-2023-SEC.pdf, p. 85 · Citi-10K-2023.pdf, p. 11 · BofA-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 86 · WellsFargo-Annual-2023.pdf, p. 11 · multi-source · hard
How does the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook define 'systems engineering'?
A methodical, multi-disciplinary approach for the design, realization, technical management, operations, and retirement of a system
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 13 · single fact · medium
How many common technical processes does the NASA systems engineering engine comprise?
17 common technical processes
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · hard
Into which three sets does the NASA SE engine organize its common technical processes?
System Design processes, Product Realization processes, and Technical Management processes
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · medium
The NASA SE engine comprises how many common technical processes in total, and into which three sets are they organized?
17 common technical processes, organized into three sets: System Design, Product Realization, and Technical Management
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 15 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA project life cycle, how many times does the SE engine cycle from Pre-Phase A through Phase D?
Five times
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 19 · single fact · hard
What are the seven phases of the NASA project life cycle, in order?
Pre-Phase A (Concept Studies), Phase A (Concept and Technology Development), Phase B (Preliminary Design and Technology Completion), Phase C (Final Design and Fabrication), Phase D (System Assembly, Integration and Test, Launch), Phase E (Operations and Sustainment), and Phase F (Closeout)
NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook, the 17 common technical processes from NPR 7123.1 are grouped into how many sets, and what are those sets?
Three sets: System Design Processes, Product Realization Processes, and Technical Management Processes
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, pp. 22, 23 · single fact · hard
How does the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook (per NPR 7123.1) distinguish an 'iterative' from a 'recursive' application of a process?
Iterative = applying a process to the same product or set of products to correct a discovered discrepancy or variation from requirements; recursive = adding value by repeated application of processes to design next-lower-level products or realize next-upper-level end products (and re-applying across life-cycle phases)
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 23 · single fact · medium
According to the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook, project management has two major areas of emphasis of equal weight and importance. What are they?
Systems engineering and project control
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 22 · single fact · medium
What are the phases of the NASA project life cycle as laid out in the Systems Engineering Handbook, and into which two broad periods are they grouped?
Pre-Phase A, Phase A, B, C, D, E, and F; grouped into Formulation and Implementation
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, what average rate of fall for raindrops is specified for design use at all times?
6.5 m/s (21.3 ft/s)
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 29 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, the gust factor profile is defined for what averaging time (tau) and what reference wind speed u18.3?
Averaging time tau = 10 min and reference wind speed u18.3 = 9.27 m/s (30.4 ft/s)
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 28 · single fact · hard
Which two NASA Procedural Requirements (NPR) documents does the Systems Engineering Handbook identify as governing, respectively, project management and the common technical (systems engineering) processes?
NPR 7120.5 (NASA Space Flight Program and Project Management Requirements) for project management, and NPR 7123.1 (NASA Systems Engineering Processes and Requirements) for the SE processes
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, pp. 22, 23 · single fact · medium
According to the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook's project life-cycle description, how many times are the technical management processes applied across the life cycle, starting from Pre-Phase A?
Seven times (once per life-cycle phase, from Pre-Phase A through Phase F)
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Expanded Guidance for Systems Engineering, what separates the distinct phases of a program/project life cycle, and what can happen to a project that fails to pass one?
Key Decision Points (KDPs) separate the phases; a project that fails to pass a KDP may be allowed to try again later after addressing deficiencies, or it may be terminated
NASA-20170007238-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 54 · single fact · medium
Per NPR 7120.5 as cited in NASA's Expanded Guidance, into which two major life-cycle phases is a NASA program/project divided, and into how many incremental phases do space-flight projects further divide?
Two major phases: Formulation and Implementation; space-flight projects divide into seven incremental phases
NASA-20170007238-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 54 · single fact · medium
According to the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook, what is the purpose of the Technical Management Processes (one of the three sets of common technical processes)?
To establish and evolve technical plans for the project, manage communication across interfaces, assess progress against plans and requirements, control technical execution through to completion, and aid the decision-making process
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 23 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, how is a hurricane distinguished from a tropical storm by sustained (1-minute mean) surface wind speed?
A hurricane has maximum sustained (1-min mean) winds of 33.5 m/s (109.9 ft/s) or greater; a tropical storm has sustained winds between a minimum of 18 m/s (59 ft/s) and a maximum of 33.5 m/s (109.9 ft/s)
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 119 · single fact · hard
Per NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, when does the Atlantic basin tropical cyclone season typically last, and how many tropical cyclones occurred in the Atlantic basin during the period of record cited?
Typically June 1 to November 30; there were 1,076 tropical cyclones in the Atlantic basin during the period of record
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 119 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, Figure 6 plots the cumulative probability of 3-, 6-, and 12-hour temperature change at the Eastern Range. For a given temperature change, which interval curve shows the highest cumulative probability, and which shows the lowest?
The 3-hour curve shows the highest cumulative probability for a given temperature change (it rises fastest / lies furthest left), and the 12-hour curve shows the lowest. The 6-hour curve falls between them. This is confirmed by Table 18 (p.82), the data table that Figure 6 plots: at every fixed cumulative probability (percentile) the 3-hr interval has the smallest temperature change and the 12-hr interval the largest (e.g., at the 90th percentile: 3-hr ≤4.1 °C, 6-hr ≤6.6 °C, 12-hr ≤8.3 °C); equivalently, read along a vertical line at a fixed temperature change, the 3-hr curve attains the highest cumulative probability and the 12-hr the lowest.
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, pp. 82, 83 · single fact · hard
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, Figure 64 plots 13-month smoothed solar flux (F10.7) over the mean solar cycle for 2002-2028. What do the three plotted curves represent, which one is highest, and how many solar-cycle maxima are visible over the span?
The three curves are the 95th-percentile, 50th-percentile, and 5th-percentile values of the 13-month smoothed F10.7 solar flux. The 95th-percentile curve is the highest. Two full solar-cycle maxima are visible within the span, peaking around 2011-2012 and around 2022-2023, with minima around 2007-2008 and around 2018-2019 (the curve also descends from a maximum sitting at the very start of the span, ~2002).
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, pp. 205, 214 · single fact · hard
According to the NASA Risk Management Handbook, NPR 8000.4A integrates which two complementary processes into a single risk-management framework, and what does each process address?
Risk management = Risk-Informed Decision Making (RIDM) + Continuous Risk Management (CRM). The RIDM process addresses the risk-informed selection of decision alternatives to assure effective approaches to achieving objectives; the CRM process addresses implementation of the selected alternative to assure that requirements are met.
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 23 · single fact · hard
How does the NASA Risk Management Handbook (per NPR 8000.4A) define 'risk', and what are the mission-execution domains in which performance shortfalls may occur?
Risk is the potential for performance shortfalls, which may be realized in the future, with respect to achieving explicitly established and stated performance requirements. The mission-execution domains are Safety, Technical, Cost, and Schedule.
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 23 · single fact · medium
Per the NASA Risk Management Handbook, for what kinds of key decisions is the Risk-Informed Decision Making (RIDM) process invoked?
RIDM is invoked for key decisions such as architecture and design decisions, make-buy decisions, source selection in major procurements, and budget reallocation (allocation of reserves) - decisions that typically involve requirements-setting or rebaselining of requirements. It is applicable throughout the project life cycle whenever trade studies are conducted.
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 25 · single fact · medium
The NASA Risk-Informed Decision Making (RIDM) Handbook describes the RIDM process as three sequential parts. What are the three parts, in order, and what is the key qualifier on how the final alternative is selected?
Part 1 - Identification of Alternatives: identify decision alternatives (recognizing opportunities) in the context of objectives. Part 2 - Risk Analysis of Alternatives: integrated-perspective risk analysis and development of the technical basis for deliberation. Part 3 - Risk-Informed Alternative Selection: deliberate and select an alternative and its associated performance commitments, informed by (not solely based on) risk analysis.
NASA-20100021361-NASA-Risk-Informed-Decision-Making-Handb.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · hard
How does the NASA System Safety Handbook define a 'Risk-Informed Safety Case' (RISC)?
A risk-informed safety case (RISC) is a structured argument, supported by a body of evidence, that provides a compelling, comprehensible, and valid case that a system is or will be adequately safe for a given application in a given environment. It is accomplished by addressing each of the operational safety objectives negotiated for the system, including a roadmap for achieving safety objectives applicable to later life-cycle phases.
NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, p. 29 · single fact · medium
According to the NASA System Safety Handbook, an 'adequately safe' system must satisfy two conditions - what are they?
An adequately safe system (1) is assessed as meeting a minimum threshold level of safety (as determined by analysis, operating experience, or both - below which the system is considered unsafe), and (2) is as safe as reasonably practicable (ASARP).
NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, p. 20 · single fact · hard
As applied to Continuous Risk Management (CRM), the NASA Risk Management Handbook characterizes risk as a set of triplets. What are the three elements of the triplet?
The CRM risk triplet consists of: (1) the scenario(s) leading to degraded performance with respect to one or more performance measures; (2) the likelihood(s) (qualitative or quantitative) of those scenarios; and (3) the consequence(s) - the qualitative or quantitative severity of the performance degradation. Uncertainties are included in the evaluation of the likelihoods and consequences.
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · hard
According to the NASA Risk Management Handbook, an individual risk is articulated as a 'risk statement' containing which four elements?
Each individual risk is articulated as a risk statement containing a condition, a departure, an asset, and a consequence. (Individual risks also include a narrative description providing relevant background.)
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 36 · single fact · hard
In NASA's ICARE method for systems engineers, what do the five letters of the acronym ICARE stand for, in order?
ICARE stands for Identify, Communicate, Assess, Report, Execute. It is a flexible, widely applicable method for systems engineers (and design engineers, technical discipline leads, analysts, etc.) to identify and resolve issues across the life cycle of programs and projects.
NASA-20100040509-The-ICARE-Method.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
How does the NASA System Safety Handbook define when a system is 'as safe as reasonably practicable' (ASARP)?
Being as safe as reasonably practicable (ASARP) is a fundamental principle of adequate safety. Determining that a system is ASARP entails weighing its safety performance against the sacrifice needed to further improve it: a system is ASARP if any incremental improvement in safety would require a disproportionate deterioration of system performance in other areas.
NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, p. 21 · single fact · hard
In the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook's project life-cycle figure (Figure 3.0-2), what are the seven NASA project life-cycle phases (Pre-Phase A through Phase F), and which phases fall under Formulation versus Implementation?
The seven phases are: Pre-Phase A - Concept Studies; Phase A - Concept & Technology Development; Phase B - Preliminary Design & Technology Completion; Phase C - Final Design & Fabrication; Phase D - System Assembly, Integration & Test, Launch; Phase E - Operations & Sustainment; and Phase F - Closeout. Pre-Phase A, Phase A, and Phase B fall under Formulation; Phases C, D, E, and F fall under Implementation (the Approval key decision point separates Phase B from Phase C).
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 38 · single fact · hard
According to NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, what air-temperature and relative-humidity conditions are conducive to high growth rates of fungi and bacteria (a concern for vehicle and ground support equipment components)?
Temperatures above 20 degrees C (68 degrees F) together with relative humidity above 75% are conducive to high growth rates of fungi and bacteria. (High atmospheric water-vapor content can have adverse effects on vehicle and GSE components.)
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 90 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, what average rate of fall for raindrops is specified for design use across all time periods?
An average rate of fall for raindrops of 6.5 m/s (21.3 ft/s) is to be used for all times.
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 100 · single fact · medium
In the NASA paper on the human factors interface with systems engineering for human spaceflight, what does the 'Human-As-A-System' (HAAS) model stress, and what design philosophy does the author advocate integrating into NASA's systems engineering process?
The Human-As-A-System (HAAS) model stresses that systems are ultimately designed for humans, so the humans should be considered as a system within the systems - placing strong emphasis on human factors engineering. The author advocates integrating the Human-Centered Design Philosophy (HCDP) into NASA's Systems Engineering (SE) process.
NASA-20080048308-Human-Factors-Interface-with-Systems-Eng.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
According to the NASA paper introducing a new handbook for space-vehicle terrestrial environment design requirements, what is NASA-HDBK-1001A, and what does it provide for aerospace vehicle development?
NASA-HDBK-1001A is the 'Terrestrial Environment (Climatic) Criteria Handbook for Use in Aerospace Vehicle Development.' It provides terrestrial environment information, databases, models, and recommendations for use in the design, development, trade studies, testing, and mission analyses for space (or launch) vehicles.
NASA-20080014867-A-New-Handbook-for-the-Development-of-Sp.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, what is the Marshall Engineering Thermosphere (MET) model used for, and on what earlier atmospheric model is it based?
The Marshall Engineering Thermosphere (MET) model represents, as far as practical for engineering applications, the variability of the ambient upper-atmosphere mass density (above 90 km). It is the standard neutral atmospheric density model used for control and lifetime (orbital-decay) studies for most NASA spacecraft projects. It is an empirical, static diffusion model with coefficients obtained from satellite drag analyses, essentially the Smithsonian's Jacchia 1970 model with two additions from the Jacchia 1971 model.
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 214 · single fact · hard
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, what global wave dataset is used to characterize sea state, over what period of record, and which spacecraft program's recovery analysis informed the site-specific sea-state information?
Sea state is characterized using the C-ERA40 (Corrected-European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts Re-Analysis) global wave dataset, developed from ECMWF data over a 45-year period of record (September 1957 to August 2002) - described as the longest and most complete global wave dataset presently available. The site-specific sea-state information is based on work by the MSFC Natural Environments Branch for the Orion Multi-Purpose Crew Vehicle (splashdown/recovery zones).
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 120 · single fact · hard
In NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design (Table 19, Edwards Air Force Base surface air and sky radiation temperature extremes), what are the maximum and minimum extreme surface air temperatures for EAFB, and what is the sky-radiation extreme minimum equivalent temperature?
For Edwards Air Force Base, the maximum extreme surface air temperature is 45 degrees C (113 degrees F) and the minimum extreme is -15.6 degrees C (3.9 degrees F). The sky-radiation extreme minimum equivalent temperature is -30 degrees C (-22 degrees F), with an equivalent radiation of 198 W/m2.
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 83 · single fact · hard
Per NASA's Natural Environments Definition for Design, why must atmospheric electricity (lightning) be considered for aerospace vehicles, and what is the distinction between direct and indirect lightning effects?
Atmospheric electricity must be considered in the design, transportation, and operation of aerospace vehicles because an inadequately protected vehicle can be upset, damaged, or destroyed by a direct lightning stroke to the vehicle or launch support equipment (before or after launch), and damage can also result from current induced in the vehicle by the changing electric fields of a nearby stroke. Direct effects are the physical effects of a stroke to the vehicle, while indirect effects are the electromagnetic (induced) effects.
NASA-20170003920-Natural-Environments-Definition-for-Desi.pdf, p. 102 · single fact · medium
How many human-systems integration (HSI) domains does NASA define for its own implementation, and how does that count compare to the long-established DoD/Air Force HSI domain set described in NASA's HSI guidance?
NASA defines six HSI domains for NASA implementation (Human Factors Engineering, Operations, Maintainability and Supportability, Habitability and Environment, Safety, and Training). By contrast, the long-established DoD/Air Force HSI categories are larger: the 2015 NASA HSI Practitioner's Guide notes the Air Force Human Systems Integration Handbook (AFD-090121-054, 2008) identifies nine domains (Manpower, Personnel, Training, HFE, Environment, Safety, Occupational Health, Survivability, and Habitability), and the 2021 NASA HSI Handbook notes DoD reassessed and revised its set from nine areas to seven (per DoD Instruction 5000.02, Enclosure 7). NASA customized the DoD categories down to its own six.
NASA-20150022283-Human-Systems-Integration-HSI-Practition.pdf, pp. 25, 26 · NASA-20210010952-NASA-Human-Systems-Integration-Handbook.pdf, pp. 19, 21 · multi-source · hard
In NASA's Spacecraft Conjunction Assessment and Collision Avoidance Best Practices Handbook, what Probability of Collision (Pc) value is recommended as the mitigation threshold above which a collision-avoidance action should be pursued, and does this recommendation carry over between the 2020 baseline and the 2023 revision?
Both the December 2020 baseline (NASA/SP-20205011318) and the February 2023 Rev 1 (NASA/SP-20230002470) recommend the same per-event Pc mitigation threshold of 1E-04 (1 in 10,000): mitigation should be pursued if the Pc value exceeds 1E-04. Generally, when Pc is greater than 1E-04 a mitigation action is recommended and executed, this threshold having emerged in the industry as an acceptable balance between safety-of-flight and mission burden.
NASA-20205011318-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 43 · NASA-20230002470-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 45 · multi-source · hard
When a conjunction mitigation maneuver is planned in NASA's Conjunction Assessment Best Practices Handbook, by how much does NASA recommend reducing the Probability of Collision as a post-mitigation goal, and what study finding motivates that number?
NASA recommends a minimum of 1.5 orders of magnitude reduction in Pc as a post-mitigation Pc goal (a factor of ~0.03 reduction). The general practice is to choose a trajectory alteration that reduces the Pc by 1 to 2 orders of magnitude; the 1.5-orders-of-magnitude figure comes from a study (Hall 2019a) showing that a Pc reduction of 1.5 orders of magnitude marked the beginning of diminishing returns with regard to lifetime satellite collision risk. The same recommendation appears in both the 2020 baseline and the 2023 revision.
NASA-20205011318-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 43 · NASA-20230002470-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 45 · multi-source · hard
Per NASA's Spacecraft Conjunction Assessment Best Practices Handbook, what predictive durations should owner/operators provide for the ephemerides they furnish for screening, broken out by orbit type?
Owner/operators should furnish predicted ephemerides (including state covariances) of a 7-day predictive duration for LEO spacecraft and 14 days for other orbits (e.g., HEO/GEO). The same 7-day-LEO / 14-day-other guidance appears in both the 2020 baseline and the 2023 revision of the handbook.
NASA-20205011318-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 38 · NASA-20230002470-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 40 · multi-source · medium
According to NASA's Conjunction Assessment Best Practices Handbook, how many conjunction-assessment screenings per day does current USSPACECOM practice conduct, and for which orbit regime is that cadence only a minimum frequency?
Current USSPACECOM practice is to conduct three screenings per day. Three screenings per day is a minimum frequency for higher-drag orbit regimes such as LEO orbits with perigee heights below 500 km; for other orbit regimes, daily (once-per-day) screenings yield sufficient accuracy. This same statement appears in both the 2020 baseline and the 2023 revision.
NASA-20205011318-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 40 · NASA-20230002470-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, p. 41 · multi-source · hard
What three elements make up a Risk-Informed Safety Case (RISC) in the NASA System Safety Handbook, and how is the treatment of these split between the handbook's two volumes?
A RISC comprises three elements: (1) an explicit set of safety claims about the system(s) (e.g., that the probability of an accident is low); (2) supporting evidence for the claims (e.g., representative operating history, redundancy in design, or results of analysis); and (3) structured safety arguments that link claims to evidence using logically valid rules of inference. Volume 1 presents the overall framework and general concepts - formulating a hierarchy of safety objectives, generating a corresponding hierarchical set of safety claims, characterizing the activities that provide supporting evidence, and presenting a RISC that validates the claims; Volume 2 (NASA/SP-2014-612, System Safety Concepts, Guidelines, and Implementation Examples) provides the specific guidance on the conduct of the major system safety activities and the development of the evidence.
NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, pp. 17, 29 · NASA-20150015500-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-Volume-2-Sys.pdf, pp. 1, 21 · multi-source · hard
Combining NASA's Systems Engineering Handbook with NASA's TRL assessment paper, what is a Technology Readiness Level (TRL), what numeric range does the TRL scale span, and at which design review is it good practice for technologies to have reached TRL-6?
Per the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook (Rev 2, Appendix G), a Technology Readiness Level (TRL) is, at its most basic, a description of the performance history of a given system, subsystem, or component relative to a set of levels first described at NASA HQ in the 1980s; it describes the state of a technology and provides a baseline from which maturity is gauged. Per the TRL assessment paper ('Technology Readiness Level Assessment Process as Applied to NASA Earth Science Missions'), technologies are evaluated against the TRL definitions and assigned a TRL of 1 through 9, and according to NPR 7120.5E it is good practice that technologies achieve TRL-6 by Preliminary Design Review (PDR).
NASA-20170001761-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 263 · NASA-20150018107-Technology-Readiness-Level-Assessment-Pr.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Risk Management Handbook, how do the RIDM and CRM processes relate in sequence, and what are the five cyclical functions on which the CRM process is built?
In the Risk Management Handbook, once an alternative has been selected using the Risk-Informed Decision Making (RIDM) process and performance requirements have been developed for it, the risk associated with implementing that alternative is managed using the Continuous Risk Management (CRM) process - so RIDM (selection) precedes and feeds CRM (ongoing management). The CRM process is built from the five cyclical functions of Identify, Analyze, Plan, Track, and Control, supported by comprehensive Communicate and Document functions.
NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, pp. 35, 36 · multi-source · hard
In the 2023 NASA Spacecraft Conjunction Assessment Best Practices Handbook, how are the LEO, HEO, and GEO orbit regimes defined by orbital period, and what predictive-duration ephemeris is correspondingly recommended for LEO versus non-LEO orbits?
In the handbook's glossary, Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is defined as an orbit with orbital period less than 225 minutes and eccentricity less than 0.25; High Earth Orbit (HEO) as an orbit with period greater than 225 minutes and eccentricity greater than 0.25; and Geosynchronous Orbit (GEO) as an orbit with period between 1300 and 1800 minutes, eccentricity < 0.25, and inclination < 35 degrees (definitions chosen to align with USSPACECOM). Correspondingly, owner/operators should furnish predicted ephemerides of a 7-day predictive duration for LEO and 14 days for other orbits (e.g., HEO/GEO).
NASA-20230002470-NASA-Spacecraft-Conjunction-Assessment-a.pdf, pp. 40, 60 · multi-source · hard
In Volume 1 of the NASA System Safety Handbook, what two fundamental facets of safety do the safety claims address, what two kinds of evidence does the RISC contain, and what three elements make up the RISC itself?
Volume 1 of the NASA System Safety Handbook states the safety claims address two fundamental facets of safety: (1) whether required safety thresholds or goals have been achieved, and (2) whether the safety risk is as low as possible within reasonable impacts on cost, schedule, and performance. The evidence contained within the RISC is of two kinds: direct or demonstrative evidence (results from operational experience, testing, and analysis) and indirect or validating evidence (factors showing that the experience, testing, and analysis are valid and applicable - e.g., validity of assumptions, relevance of environments, model V&V, personnel qualifications). The RISC itself comprises three elements: an explicit set of safety claims, supporting evidence for the claims, and structured safety arguments that link claims to evidence using logically valid rules of inference.
NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, pp. 15, 29 · multi-source · hard
Across the two NASA COBSTRAN manuals (the User's Manual NASA-TM-101461 and the Theoretical/Programmer's Manual NASA-TM-101958), what does the acronym COBSTRAN stand for, and combining the two manuals: (a) what programming language is COBSTRAN written in and what role does it play relative to NASTRAN as stated in the User's Manual, and (b) how many subroutines does the Theoretical/Programmer's Manual say the program comprises, with which subroutine programs the micromechanics equations and which programs the laminate theory equations?
COBSTRAN stands for COmposite Blade STRuctural ANalyzer (stated in both the User's Manual and the Theoretical/Programmer's Manual). (a) Per the User's Manual, COBSTRAN is written in FORTRAN 77, and as a preprocessor for NASTRAN it generates a NASTRAN model with anisotropic homogeneous material properties, while stress output from NASTRAN is provided as input to the COBSTRAN postprocessor. (b) Per the Theoretical/Programmer's Manual, the program comprises seventy-two subroutines; the micromechanics equations are programmed in subroutine PLY, and the laminate theory equations are programmed in subroutine PROP.
NASA-19890014250-Composite-blade-structural-analyzer-COBS.pdf, p. 5 · NASA-19900000865-Composite-Blade-Structural-Analyzer-COBS.pdf, pp. 11, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA "Reliability Handbook for Silicon Monolithic Microcircuits" series prepared by Texas Instruments under Contract NAS 8-20639, two of the volumes — Volume 2 "Failure Mechanisms of Monolithic Microcircuits" and Volume 3 "Failure Analysis of Monolithic Microcircuits" — each carry a FOREWORD noting a relationship to NASA CR 1110. For EACH of these two specific volumes, give its NASA CR report number and its author, and state the single shared scope-distinction their FOREWORDs draw between NASA CR 1110 and this handbook.
Both volumes were prepared by Texas Instruments Incorporated (Dallas, Texas) under Contract No. NAS 8-20639. Volume 2, "Failure Mechanisms of Monolithic Microcircuits," is NASA CR-1347 and was written by Wilburn O. Shurtleff. Volume 3, "Failure Analysis of Monolithic Microcircuits," is NASA CR-1348 and was written by Wilton L. Workman. The FOREWORD of each volume states the same scope-distinction: "Some similarity may be noted between NASA CR 1110, 'Microelectronic Device Data Handbook,' and the data presented herein; however, NASA CR 1110 deals with microcircuits in general, while this document was prepared as a reliability handbook and deals with monolithic microcircuits only."
NASA-19690013861-Reliability-handbook-for-silicon-monolit.pdf, pp. 1, 2, 3 · NASA-19690015950-Reliability-Handbook-for-Silicon-Monolit.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · multi-source · hard
DESAP 1 and DESAP 2 are companion finite-element structural-design programs from Penn State / NASA Marshall, and each is described as deriving from the same base finite-element program. For each of the two programs, what type of design constraints does it impose (beyond the minimum-weight objective), and what is the name of the finite-element program that DESAP 1's static-analysis portion and DESAP 2's prebuckling-state analysis are both derived from?
Both programs perform computer-automated minimum-weight design of elastic structures, but they differ in their constraints. DESAP 1 is "A Structural Design Program with Stress and Displacement Constraints" — it imposes constraints on stresses (including local instability criteria) and displacements. DESAP 2 is "A Structural Design Program with Stress and Buckling Constraints" — it imposes constraints on stresses (including local instability criteria) and buckling loads; for buckling-constrained design only one load condition can be chosen as the potential buckling load. Both derive from the same base program: the static analysis portion of DESAP 1 is based on the SOLID SAP finite element program developed at the University of California, Berkeley, and a substantial portion of DESAP 2 (particularly the analysis of the prebuckling state) is likewise derived from the SOLID SAP finite element program.
NASA-19770011525-DESAP-1-A-structural-design-program-with.pdf, pp. 2, 5 · NASA-19770011528-DESAP-2-A-structural-design-program-with.pdf, pp. 2, 5 · multi-source · hard
NASA's two-volume "Expanded Guidance for NASA Systems Engineering" (document NASA/SP-2016-6105-SUPPL, March 2016) splits its content between two volumes that share the same main title. According to the cover page of each volume, what is the subtitle (content scope) of Volume 1 versus Volume 2?
Both volumes carry the identical main title "Expanded Guidance for NASA Systems Engineering," the same document number NASA/SP-2016-6105-SUPPL, and the same March 2016 date, but their cover subtitles divide the content: Volume 1 is subtitled "Systems Engineering Practices," and Volume 2 is subtitled "Crosscutting Topics, Special Topics, and Appendices."
NASA-20170007238-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 1 · NASA-20170007239-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two NASA Fortran composite-structures tools each derive from or embed named sub-codes. For ICAN (Integrated Composite Analyzer), name the two in-house computer codes it is an outgrowth of (with their full expansions). For PASCO (Structural Panel Analysis and Sizing Code), name the computer code included in it for buckling and vibration analysis and the computer code included in it for sizing. Give all four constituent code names and assign each to the correct parent tool.
ICAN (Integrated Composite Analyzer) is an outgrowth of two in-house computer codes: MFCA (Multilayered Filamentary Composite Analysis) and INHYD (Intraply Hybrid Composite Design). PASCO (Structural Panel Analysis and Sizing Code) carries out its buckling and vibration analyses with a linked-plate analysis computer code denoted VIPASA, which is included in PASCO, and bases sizing on nonlinear mathematical programming techniques employing a computer code denoted CONMIN, also included in PASCO. So ICAN's constituent codes are MFCA and INHYD, while PASCO's embedded codes are VIPASA (buckling/vibration) and CONMIN (sizing).
NASA-19860012143-Integrated-Composite-Analyzer-ICAN-Users.pdf, p. 5 · NASA-19820012689-PASCO-Structural-panel-analysis-and-sizi.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
Two NASA engineering criteria handbooks in this corpus — the "Phase Change Materials Handbook" and the "Transportation and Handling Shock and Vibration / Environmental Criteria" final report — were each prepared by an outside contractor under a separate NASA contract. Identify the preparing contractor and the contract (or grant) number for each handbook, and state the single NASA field center that sponsored both works.
Both handbooks were prepared by external contractors for the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center, Alabama (NASA-MSFC). The Phase Change Materials Handbook was prepared by Lockheed Missiles & Space Company, Huntsville Research & Engineering Center, under Contract NAS8-25183. The Transportation and Handling Shock and Vibration / Environmental Criteria final report (MR 1262) was prepared by the General American Research Division of the General American Transportation Corporation under Contract NAS 8-11451. Although the two handbooks have different contractors, different contract numbers (NAS8-25183 versus NAS 8-11451), and unrelated technical subjects, both were sponsored by the same NASA field center: the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center.
NASA-19720012306-Phase-change-materials-handbook.pdf, pp. 1, 3, 7 · NASA-19670029983-Transportation-and-handling-shock-and-vi.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In NASA's Physics of Failure materials, which single model is classified under the EMPIRICAL category alongside the Statistical Modeling and Bayesian methods, and which five named models make up the "Accelerated Performance Analysis" group under the DETERMINISTIC category? Confirm this classification appears both in the NASA/SP-20230004376 Methodology handbook's Table of Contents and in the OSMA "R&M Physics of Failure (PoF) Handbook" Digital Evolution slide.
The empirical category model is Peck's Temperature-Humidity Relationship Prediction. The five named Accelerated Performance Analysis models under the deterministic category are Arrhenius, Inverse Power, Coffin-Manson (spelled "Coffin-Mason" on the OSMA slide), Zhurkov, and Palmgren. In the Methodology handbook's Table of Contents (p10/Page 3), these appear as "3.3 Peck's Temperature-Humidity Relationship Prediction" (empirical, listed under Section 3 Empirical Methods) and "3.4 Accelerated Performance Analysis" with subsections "3.4.1 Arrhenius", "3.4.2 Inverse Power", "3.4.3 Coffin-Manson", "3.4.4 Zhurkov Equation", and "3.4.5 Palmgren". On the OSMA Digital Evolution slide (p6), the Empirical list includes "Peck's Temperature-Humidity Relationship Prediction" and the Deterministic list reads "Accelerated Performance Analysis (Arrhenius, Inverse Power, Coffin-Mason, Zhurkov, Palmgren)".
NASA-20230004376-NASA-Methodology-for-Physics-of-Failure.pdf, p. 10 · NASA-20210017119-OSMA-Digital-Evolution-R-M-Physics-of-Fa.pdf, p. 6 · multi-source · hard
In NASA's Physics of Failure (PoF) Reliability documentation under NASA/SP-20230004376, PoF analysis is split into two method families: Empirical Methods and Deterministic Methods. Using the "NASA Physics of Failure (PoF) Handbook Update" presentation together with the full "NASA Methodology for Physics of Failure-Based Reliability Assessments Handbook," state: (a) the presentation's one-line definitions of the Empirical and Deterministic method families, and (b) what the handbook's own Section 3.1 ("Empirical Reliability Approach") and Section 4.1 ("What are Deterministic Methods?") say each method is based on. Confirm both documents carry the same SP number.
Both documents are issued under NASA/SP-20230004376. The Update presentation (NASA-20240007819) defines the two method families on its slide: "Empirical: Analysis methods that study the failure history of parts under given conditions, then fits the failure data to a probability distribution. Responsive to new concepts." and "Deterministic: Analysis methods that involve the study of the predicted underlying physical processes/causes that could cause failure and results in a mathematical relationship describing the failure potential. Responsive to new concepts." The full Handbook (NASA-20230004376) elaborates each family in its sections: Section 3.1 "Empirical Reliability Approach" states that "Failure rate empirical estimation methods used in science and engineering are often based on past data" using "component failure data from field studies, warranty claims, and lab tests," and that "Statistical modeling (empirical methods) has at its foundation experimental physics processes." Section 4.1 "What are Deterministic Methods?" states that "Deterministic models analyze the dominate failure mechanisms behind a failure and how they limit the functional capability of the component," incorporating "the component load profiles, material specifications, and environmental stresses to recreate the life conditions a component or system experiences as a means to predict the reliability."
NASA-20240007819-NASA-Physics-of-Failure-PoF-Handbook-Upd.pdf, p. 5 · NASA-20230004376-NASA-Methodology-for-Physics-of-Failure.pdf, pp. 20, 37 · multi-source · hard
Across the two NASA Physics of Failure artifacts in the corpus, what is the formal identity of the PoF handbook itself: its full handbook title, its NASA SP document number, its version string, and its month/year, AND in the separate "NASA Physics of Failure (PoF) Handbook Update" presentation (the June 3, 2024 deck), which NASA SP number is cited for the PoF Handbook?
The handbook's full title is "NASA Methodology for Physics of Failure-Based Reliability Assessments Handbook." It carries the document number NASA/SP-20230004376, Version 1.0.3, dated June 2024 (with "Page1 of 99" on its first content page). The separate "NASA Physics of Failure (PoF) Handbook Update" presentation, dated June 3, 2024, cites the PoF Handbook as NASA/SP-20230004376 (the same SP number), and references https://ntrs.nasa.gov/citations/20230004376. Thus both artifacts share the SP number NASA/SP-20230004376, but only the handbook bears the version string "Version 1.0.3", and the presentation is the update deck of that handbook.
NASA-20230004376-NASA-Methodology-for-Physics-of-Failure.pdf, pp. 5, 6 · NASA-20240007819-NASA-Physics-of-Failure-PoF-Handbook-Upd.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the four-volume "Reliability Handbook for Silicon Monolithic Microcircuits" prepared by Texas Instruments Incorporated under Contract NAS 8-20639 for NASA, each volume was issued as its own NASA Contractor Report. Using each volume's own title page and preface, state which NASA CR number and which subject topic correspond to Volume 1, Volume 2, and Volume 3 respectively.
Volume 1 is NASA CR-1346, "Application of Monolithic Microcircuits"; Volume 2 is NASA CR-1347, "Failure Mechanisms of Monolithic Microcircuits"; and Volume 3 is NASA CR-1348, "Failure Analysis of Monolithic Microcircuits." All three were prepared by Texas Instruments Incorporated under Contract No. NAS 8-20639 for the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center.
NASA-19690013860-Reliability-Handbook-for-Silicon-Monolit.pdf, pp. 1, 4 · NASA-19690013861-Reliability-handbook-for-silicon-monolit.pdf, pp. 1, 4 · NASA-19690015950-Reliability-Handbook-for-Silicon-Monolit.pdf, pp. 1, 4 · multi-source · hard
The Structural Tailoring of Engine Blades (STAEBL) program is documented in two companion NASA volumes by K. W. Brown, both dated March 1985 under Contract NAS3-22525: one carries the subtitle "User's Manual" and the other the subtitle "Theoretical Manual." Give the distinct NASA CR report number and Performing Organization Report number (PWA) of each of these two volumes, and state the full list of constraint analyses that the STAEBL constraint analyses include, together with the number of design variables that STAEBL tunes, as stated in both volumes.
The two companion volumes are: (1) the STAEBL "User's Manual" — NASA CR-175113, Performing Organization Report No. PWA-5774-39; and (2) the STAEBL "Theoretical Manual" — NASA CR-175112, Performing Organization Report No. PWA-5774-40. Both are by author K. W. Brown (United Technologies Corporation, Pratt & Whitney Aircraft Group), dated March 1985 under Contract NAS3-22525. Both volumes state that "The STAEBL constraint analyses include blade stresses, vibratory response, flutter, and foreign object damage," and that the blade optimization "seeks a minimum weight or cost design that satisfies realistic blade design constraints, by tuning one to twenty design variables." The Theoretical Manual (CR-175112) further notes that the COPES/CONMIN optimization package "is a proven tool for optimizations with a small to medium (1-20) number of design variables."
NASA-19860017812-Structural-tailoring-of-engine-blades-ST.pdf, p. 7 · NASA-19860017811-Structural-tailoring-of-engine-blades-ST.pdf, pp. 5, 11 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Technical Paper 2916 users and programmers manual, what does the acronym CARES stand for, what is the program's stated purpose, and which finite-element program's output does it interface with for its input (per the Program Capability/Input section)? Combine the title-page acronym expansion with the program-capability description to answer.
CARES stands for "Ceramics Analysis and Reliability Evaluation of Structures," the subject of NASA Technical Paper 2916 (Users and Programmers Manual). Its stated purpose is to predict the reliability of isotropic ceramic components: per the Program Capability and Description section, "CARES is an integrated computer program written in FORTRAN 77 which uses Weibull and Batdorf fracture statistics to predict the reliability of isotropic ceramic components." For its input it interfaces with MSC/NASTRAN finite-element output (the Contents lists "MSC/NASTRAN Finite Element Analysis" under Input Information); component reliability "is predicted by using elastostatic finite element analysis output from the MSC/NASTRAN or ANSYS computer programs." MSC/NASTRAN is expanded as "MacNeal-Schwendler Corporation/NASA STRuctural ANalysis."
NASA-19900018783-Ceramics-Analysis-and-Reliability-Evalua.pdf, pp. 3, 5, 9 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Laboratory and Industrial Ventilation handbook's discussion of ventilation system types, contrast a "Central System" with a "Single System" on four points: (a) how many areas or hoods each serves with its single air moving device, (b) which one is generally lower in first cost, (c) which one is difficult to balance and risks mixing vapors and fumes into a corrosive/flammable/explosive/toxic mixture, and (d) which system type the handbook recommends be used to handle toxic, noxious, flammable or explosive fumes or vapors.
A "Central System" employs a single air moving device with ductwork and serves several areas or hoods within a building, whereas a "single system" utilizes a single air moving device serving a single area or hood. (b) Central systems are generally lower in first cost than are local systems. (c) The Central system is the one that is difficult to balance: central exhaust systems "are difficult to balance and to coordinate with the makeup air system," and when multiple hoods are connected to a single duct the mixing of various vapors and fumes "may easily become corrosive, flammable, explosive or toxic creating a health hazard"; by contrast, in a single system "There is no mixing of fumes or vapors to cause hazards" and it does "not require balancing within themselves." (d) The handbook recommends Single (single type / single exhaust) systems for hazardous service: "Single exhaust systems should be used to handle any toxic, noxious, flammable or explosive fumes or vapors."
NASA-19940003794-Laboratory-and-Industrial-Ventilation.pdf, pp. 33, 34, 35 · multi-source · hard
In the COBSTRAN (COmposite Blade STRuctural ANalyzer) User's Manual, COBSTRAN serves as a preprocessor for NASTRAN. Pulling together its implementation, its preprocessor output behavior, its coordinate-system definition, and its mesh-generation capability: (1) In what programming language is COBSTRAN written, and what kind of NASTRAN model does it generate as a preprocessor? (2) When used as a preprocessor only, to which FORTRAN unit does COBSTRAN write the NASTRAN bulk data records? (3) What coordinate system does COBSTRAN use, and from which axis (at what degree value) is the ply orientation angle defined? (4) Under the SOLID option, what blade-geometry quantity may the user specify at each final mid-thickness grid point for 2-D mesh generation?
(1) COBSTRAN is written in FORTRAN 77, and as a preprocessor for NASTRAN it generates a NASTRAN model with anisotropic homogeneous material properties. (2) Used as a preprocessor only, COBSTRAN writes the NASTRAN grid, connectivity and material (bulk data) records to FORTRAN unit KBULK, which can be assigned to a user designated file. (3) COBSTRAN utilizes a right hand rectangular coordinate system (the blade lies spanwise along the x-axis, the blade chord lies generally along the y-axis, and the z-axis is through the thickness); the ply orientation angle is defined from the COBSTRAN x-axis (0.0 degree ply orientation). (4) Under the SOLID option, the user may specify the final mid-thickness grid points to be used in COBSTRAN and the blade thickness at each of these points.
NASA-19890014250-Composite-blade-structural-analyzer-COBS.pdf, pp. 5, 9, 11 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Flight Test Engineering chapter (Pavlock, chap. 2), the design process is broken into three sequential phases based on design maturity (section 2.4 Design Phases), and later requirements are confirmed using a set of verification methods (section 2.5 Integration and Verification). Name the three sequential design phases AND list the four verification methods by which verification is traditionally accomplished.
The three sequential design phases, defined within section 2.4 based on design maturity, are: conceptual design, preliminary design, and detail design. The four verification methods by which verification is traditionally accomplished (section 2.5) are: Demonstration (the practical display of the expected functionality), Inspection (the examination of a product compared to design documentation), Test (testing is the principal means to assure functional compliance to requirements), and Analysis (use of analytic techniques to assess system performance).
NASA-20140010192-Flight-Test-Engineering.pdf, pp. 6, 9, 10, 12 · multi-source · hard
In NASA's "Flight Test Engineering" chapter (Pavlock, chap. 2(v)), the author argues that flight test is needed because ground-based verification methods are limited, yet later lists specific ground-based "Test" techniques as valid verification methods. Aggregate the two: (a) state the four summarized limitations of ground-based methods that justify the need for flight test, and (b) name the specific ground-based "Test" examples the chapter lists as principal means to assure functional compliance to requirements.
The need for flight test arises because ground-based verification methods such as wind tunnels, simulators, and software models, although useful, are limited in their ability to fully model the dynamic and true nature of actual flight. The four summarized limitations (Appleford 2005) are: (1) adequate replication of actual flight conditions on the ground is often impractical, if not impossible; (2) particular flight conditions may be insufficiently defined or too complex to be replicated or simulated; (3) all but the simplest of aircraft incorporate many systems having complex interactions, and those interactions may be more difficult to fully investigate on the ground; and (4) despite our best endeavors, significant discrepancies between actual flight behavior and ground-based predictions are common, so flight test data are essential to both improve and validate the accuracy of models and simulations. Despite these limitations, the chapter lists "Test" (the principal means to assure functional compliance to requirements, associated with data gathering under controlled and repeatable conditions) examples that are themselves ground-based: Simulator (pilot-in-the-loop simulators with a cockpit emulator), Environmental testing (temperature and pressure chambers along with vibration tables), Avionics bench testing, Structural loads tests, Engine test stands, and Ground vibration tests.
NASA-20140010192-Flight-Test-Engineering.pdf, pp. 1, 2, 10, 11 · multi-source · hard
In the "Types of Flight Test" section of this NASA flight test engineering chapter, three common categories of flight test are grouped by their purpose. Name all three categories and state the distinct purpose the chapter assigns to each: what does experimental flight test involve, what does development and certification flight test demonstrate, and what does production flight test do (including the document it is a prerequisite to)?
The chapter groups flight tests into three common categories by purpose: experimental, development and certification, and production flight test. (1) Experimental flight test involves "verifying or refuting the validity of an aeronautic hypothesis; essentially exploring the unknown of aeronautic capabilities." (2) Development and certification flight test involves "demonstrating compliance with all requirements, ensuring that the aircraft or system does what it was designed to do." (3) Production flight test deals with testing each production copy or system rather than testing a single asset to obtain acceptance of all; it is the final stage of the production process and is a prerequisite to each aircraft being issued a Certificate of Airworthiness and released to the customer.
NASA-20140010192-Flight-Test-Engineering.pdf, pp. 2, 3, 4 · multi-source · hard
In NASA's Laboratory and Industrial Ventilation manual, characterize a Federal Standard No. 209 Class 100 clean room by combining two distinct specifications from the text: (a) the Class 100 airborne particle-count limit defined under Federal Standard No. 209, including the particle size at which that limit is measured, and (b) the High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filter performance through which the clean-room air enters — its rated efficiency, the particle size that efficiency applies to, and the test method and military standard used to determine it. State each particle size explicitly so the class limit and the filter spec are not conflated.
A Federal Standard No. 209 Class 100 clean room is defined as a particle count not to exceed 100 particles per cubic foot of a size 0.5 microns and larger. (By comparison, Class 10,000 allows not more than 10,000 particles per cubic foot at 0.5 microns and larger, or 65 particles per cubic foot at 5.0 microns or larger, and Class 100,000 allows not more than 100,000 particles per cubic foot at 0.5 microns and larger, or 700 particles per cubic foot at 5.0 microns and larger.) The clean-room air enters through High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters, which have an efficiency of, or in excess of, 99.97 percent for 0.3 micron particles. This efficiency is determined by the Dioctyl Phthalate (DOP) Test according to Military Standard MIL-STD-282. Note that the class particle counts are specified at a 0.5 micron size, whereas the HEPA filter efficiency is rated for 0.3 micron particles — the two sizes are different.
NASA-19940003794-Laboratory-and-Industrial-Ventilation.pdf, pp. 32, 33 · multi-source · hard
In the ICAN (Integrated Composite Analyzer) NASA users manual, ICAN is described as a synergistic combination of two predecessor in-house computer codes. Name those two predecessor codes (with what their acronyms stand for), and separately list the three computers on which the ICAN code was tested and the programming language in which it was written.
ICAN is a synergistic combination of the two predecessor in-house computer codes MFCA (Multilayered Filamentary Composite Analysis) and INHYD (Intraply Hybrid Composite Design); it utilizes the micromechanical design of INHYD and the laminate analysis of MFCA. The ICAN computer code has been programmed in Fortran IV and has been tested on the UNIVAC 1108, IBM 370, and CRAY 1 computers.
NASA-19860012143-Integrated-Composite-Analyzer-ICAN-Users.pdf, pp. 5, 6 · multi-source · hard
In PASCO's substructure model, two substructure types are defined. For each type, give (a) the inclusive integer numbering range used to identify it and (b) the size of the stiffness matrix that governs its response. Specifically contrast plates/doubly-connected substructures against singly-connected substructures.
Plates and doubly-connected substructures are numbered 1 to 120; because a doubly-connected substructure has two nodes, its response is governed by an eight-by-eight stiffness matrix. Singly-connected substructures are identified by numbers 121 to 899; when boundary conditions are known at one edge, those degrees of freedom may be removed so that only a four-by-four stiffness matrix is required.
NASA-19820012689-PASCO-Structural-panel-analysis-and-sizi.pdf, pp. 8, 9 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Phase Change Materials Handbook, the List of Illustrations (Section 5 property tables) groups candidate PCMs into five high-level material categories before listing the individual materials, and a separate contents section enumerates the four methods for obtaining property data. Name the five high-level PCM material categories given as Tables 5-1 through 5-5, and separately name the four property-data measurement methods listed as subsections under "Methods for Obtaining Property Data."
The five high-level PCM material categories given as Tables 5-1 through 5-5 in the List of Illustrations are: (5-1) Paraffins, (5-2) Non-Paraffin Organics, (5-3) Salt Hydrates, (5-4) Metallics, and (5-5) Fused Salt Eutectics. Separately, Section 9 "METHODS FOR OBTAINING PROPERTY DATA" lists four measurement methods as its subsections: 9.1 Melting and Freezing Temperatures, 9.2 Latent Heat of Fusion, 9.3 Heat Capacity, and 9.4 Thermal Diffusivity.
NASA-19720012306-Phase-change-materials-handbook.pdf, pp. 10, 11 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Phase Change Materials Handbook, Section 3 ("THERMAL CONTROL TECHNIQUES") is divided into three subsections naming three categories of thermal control technique. List those three categories, and state the defining ability of phase change materials (PCM) given in the report's abstract that the handbook says relates PCM to these "more conventional thermal control techniques."
Section 3, "THERMAL CONTROL TECHNIQUES," is divided into three subsections: 3.1 Passive Thermal Control Techniques, 3.2 Semipassive Thermal Control Techniques, and 3.3 Active Thermal Control Techniques. The abstract defines the property that situates PCM among these techniques as "The unique ability of phase change materials (PCM) to absorb and liberate large quantities of heat without appreciable temperature change," and the abstract states that "The relationship between PCM and more conventional thermal control techniques is described." Thus PCM is placed against the passive/semipassive/active taxonomy by virtue of its capacity to absorb and liberate large quantities of heat without appreciable temperature change.
NASA-19720012306-Phase-change-materials-handbook.pdf, pp. 3, 9 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA Physics of Failure (PoF) Handbook, the slide defining analysis-method categories lists "Empirical" as methods that study failure history and fit it to a probability distribution, and "Aggregation" as using single or multiple methods with/in lieu of reference rates. On the following "PoF Use & Examples" slide, three Mission Use Cases are worked. For (a) the Payload with similar-mission history of 7,127,352 hrs and no failures, and (b) the proven terrestrial component used in a space application with success probability Ps = 0.8 at the mission duration and a radiation probability of failure Pf = 0.7, name the specific PoF solution method each use case was solved with, and state which method-category definition from the prior slide each method falls under.
The Payload use case (similar-mission history of 7,127,352 hrs and no failures, r = 0) was solved with "Bayes' estimation," producing an updated rate of approximately 3.95x10^-7 (1/hours). The terrestrial-component use case (Ps = 0.8 at the mission duration; radiation probability of failure Pf = 0.7) was solved by "assuming that the terrestrial and radiation failure mechanisms are independent or disjointed, and would use a fault tree or a Bayesian network to find Pf." Both of these methods rely on the historical/probabilistic failure data described by the page-5 "Empirical" definition ("Analysis methods that study the failure history of parts under given conditions, then fits the failure data to a probability distribution"), and the combination of the two failure mechanisms in the terrestrial case is an instance of the page-5 "Aggregation" definition ("Using a single method or multiple methods concurrently with or in lieu of reference rates ... to develop system failure likelihood using statistical techniques and considering dependencies of individual findings").
NASA-20240007819-NASA-Physics-of-Failure-PoF-Handbook-Upd.pdf, pp. 5, 6 · multi-source · hard
In the NASA STAEBL User's Manual, three pieces describe how the Structural Tailoring of Engine Blades code optimizes a blade: the purpose for which it was developed (title-page abstract), the name of its optimization algorithm package (Section 1.0 Program Description), and the kind of finite-element model its approximate analyses use plus how the design is changed each iteration. Aggregating these, what was STAEBL developed to do, what is its optimization algorithm, and what type of mesh/model do its approximate analyses use as STAEBL changes the blade design through the optimization process illustrated in Figure 1?
STAEBL (Structural Tailoring of Engine Blades) was developed to perform engine fan and compressor blade numerical optimizations, seeking a minimum weight or cost design that satisfies realistic blade design constraints by tuning one to twenty design variables. Its optimization algorithm is the COPES/CONMIN (Control Program for Engineering Synthesis/Constrained Minimization) optimization package, a proven tool for optimizations with a small to medium (1-20) number of design variables. The approximate analyses of STAEBL utilize an efficient, coarse mesh, plate finite element blade vibration analysis procedure (providing blade natural frequencies and mode shapes, stress under centrifugal loads, and blade weight). Starting from a coordinate description of the initial blade design, STAEBL changes the blade design according to the available blade design variables, and Figure 1 illustrates the STAEBL optimization process by which an optimum blade design is derived and verified.
NASA-19860017812-Structural-tailoring-of-engine-blades-ST.pdf, pp. 7, 15, 17 · multi-source · hard
In the DEFINITIONS glossary of the NASA Laboratory and Industrial Ventilation handbook, two entries each carry a numeric threshold: the entry for "air, standard" and the entry for "lower explosive limit (LEL)". State the complete defining conditions given for "standard air" (its temperature, barometric pressure, and the density it is equivalent to), AND state the temperature threshold up to which the LEL is assumed constant together with the factor by which the LEL should be decreased above that temperature.
Standard air is defined as dry air at 70 degF and 29.92 in. (Hg) barometer, which is substantially equivalent to 0.075 lbs per cu. ft. The lower explosive limit (LEL) is assumed constant for temperatures up to 250 degF; above these temperatures it should be decreased by a factor of 0.7 (since explosibility increases with higher temperatures).
NASA-19940003794-Laboratory-and-Industrial-Ventilation.pdf, pp. 12, 13 · multi-source · hard
Four near-identically-titled NASA systems-engineering documents are in the corpus. Identify each by the designation printed on its title page (the NASA SP number and revision for the two Handbook editions, and the volume number and subtitle for the two Expanded Guidance volumes).
NASA-20080008301 = NASA Systems Engineering Handbook, NASA/SP-2007-6105 Rev 1; NASA-20170001761 = NASA Systems Engineering Handbook, NASA/SP-2016-6105 Rev 2; NASA-20170007238 = Expanded Guidance for NASA Systems Engineering, Volume 1 (Systems Engineering Practices); NASA-20170007239 = Expanded Guidance for NASA Systems Engineering, Volume 2 (Crosscutting Topics, Special Topics, and Appendices).
NASA-20080008301-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 3 · NASA-20170001761-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 1 · NASA-20170007238-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 1 · NASA-20170007239-Expanded-Guidance-for-NASA-Systems-Engin.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
State the NASA document (SP) number printed on the title page of each of these four distinct NASA handbooks: the Systems Engineering Handbook, the Risk Management Handbook, the System Safety Handbook (Volume 1), and the Human Systems Integration Handbook.
Systems Engineering Handbook = NASA/SP-2016-6105 Rev 2; Risk Management Handbook = NASA/SP-2011-3422; System Safety Handbook Vol 1 = NASA/SP-2010-580; Human Systems Integration Handbook = NASA/SP-20210010952.
NASA-20170001761-NASA-Systems-Engineering-Handbook.pdf, p. 1 · NASA-20120000033-NASA-Risk-Management-Handbook.pdf, p. 21 · NASA-20120003291-NASA-System-Safety-Handbook-System-Safet.pdf, p. 1 · NASA-20210010952-NASA-Human-Systems-Integration-Handbook.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
What did the Supreme Court hold in Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization?
The Constitution does not confer a right to abortion; Roe v. Wade and Planned Parenthood v. Casey are overruled; and the authority to regulate abortion is returned to the people and their elected representatives
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
On what date was Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization decided?
June 24, 2022
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
What did the Supreme Court hold regarding presidential immunity in Trump v. United States (2024)?
A former President has absolute immunity from criminal prosecution for actions within his conclusive and preclusive constitutional authority, at least presumptive immunity for all official acts, and no immunity for unofficial acts
SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
On what date was Trump v. United States (the presidential immunity case) decided?
July 1, 2024
SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In 2024 the Supreme Court decided two cases involving Donald J. Trump - Trump v. Anderson and Trump v. United States. What did the Court hold in each?
Trump v. Anderson: States may not enforce Section 3 of the Fourteenth Amendment to disqualify a federal candidate (that responsibility lies with Congress); the Colorado decision removing Trump from the ballot was reversed. Trump v. United States: a former President has absolute immunity for acts within his core constitutional authority, at least presumptive immunity for other official acts, and no immunity for unofficial acts.
SCOTUS-Trump-v-Anderson-23-719.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Order these three 2024 Supreme Court decisions from earliest to latest: Trump v. Anderson, Trump v. United States, and Ohio v. Environmental Protection Agency.
Trump v. Anderson (March 4, 2024), then Ohio v. EPA (June 27, 2024), then Trump v. United States (July 1, 2024)
SCOTUS-Trump-v-Anderson-23-719.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Ohio-v-EPA-23a349.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Both Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization and Trump v. Anderson turned on the Fourteenth Amendment - how did the Amendment figure in each holding?
In Dobbs, the Court held the Fourteenth Amendment's Due Process Clause does NOT confer a right to abortion (overruling Roe and Casey). In Trump v. Anderson, the Court held that Section 3 of the Fourteenth Amendment cannot be enforced by the States against federal candidates - only Congress can.
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-Anderson-23-719.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Ohio v. Environmental Protection Agency (2024) concerned the EPA's enforcement of which Clean Air Act provision?
The 'Good Neighbor' Provision (and the EPA's Good Neighbor Plan / Federal Implementation Plan addressing cross-state ozone pollution)
SCOTUS-Ohio-v-EPA-23a349.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization, on what date was the case decided, and which two prior Supreme Court precedents did the Court overrule?
Decided June 24, 2022; the Court overruled Roe v. Wade and Planned Parenthood of Southeastern Pa. v. Casey
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What gestational-age limit did Mississippi's Gestational Age Act impose on abortion, and what were its only stated exceptions?
It barred abortion after 15 weeks' probable gestational age, except in a medical emergency or in the case of a severe fetal abnormality
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
From which U.S. Court of Appeals did the Supreme Court take certiorari in Dobbs, and how had that court ruled on Mississippi's Act?
The Fifth Circuit, which affirmed the district court's order permanently enjoining enforcement of the Act
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
What U.S. Reports citations does the Dobbs syllabus give for Roe v. Wade and for Planned Parenthood v. Casey?
Roe v. Wade, 410 U.S. 113; Planned Parenthood of Southeastern Pa. v. Casey, 505 U.S. 833
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the EPA's 2024 Greenhouse Gas Reporting Rule revisions, what are the estimated incremental implementation labor costs per year over RY2025-RY2027, and what is the three-year total?
$169.4 million per year, for a total of $508.3 million over the three years
FR-2024-08988-Greenhouse-Gas-Reporting-Rule-Revisions.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · hard
How did the EPA's estimate of annual labor costs for the GHG Reporting Rule change from the proposed rule to the final rule?
It increased from $41.4 million per year at proposal to $169.4 million per year at final
FR-2024-08988-Greenhouse-Gas-Reporting-Rule-Revisions.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · medium
After overruling Roe and Casey, what standard of review did the Dobbs Court hold governs a state's abortion regulations?
Rational-basis review: the law must be sustained if there is a rational basis on which the legislature could have thought it would serve legitimate state interests
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · hard
In Dobbs, what specific state interest (cited from the Act itself) did the Court identify as providing a rational basis for Mississippi's Gestational Age Act?
The State's interest in 'protecting the life of the unborn' (Act section 2(b)(i))
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · medium
In the Medicaid 'Ensuring Access to Medicaid Services' final rule, what minimum percentage of Medicaid payments for homemaker, home health aide, and personal care services must be spent on compensation for direct care workers?
At least 80 percent
FR-2024-08363-Medicaid-Program-Ensuring-Access-to-Medi.pdf, p. 70 · single fact · hard
Trace the procedural history of Dobbs: how did the federal district court, the Fifth Circuit, and finally the Supreme Court each rule on Mississippi's Gestational Age Act?
The District Court granted summary judgment for the challengers and permanently enjoined the Act; the Fifth Circuit affirmed; the Supreme Court reversed - it upheld the Act and overruled Roe and Casey
SCOTUS-Dobbs-19-1392.pdf, pp. 1, 8 · multi-source · hard
In Rico v. United States, did the Supreme Court hold that a defendant's abscondment automatically extends (or tolls) their term of supervised release under the Sentencing Reform Act?
No. The Court held that the Sentencing Reform Act does not authorize a rule automatically extending a defendant's term of supervised release when the defendant absconds. The Ninth Circuit had called it 'tolling,' but the Court explained the rule really extends the term beyond what the judge ordered; the Act's only true tolling rule is 3624(e), which suspends supervised release during imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or more.
SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
Who wrote the majority opinion in Rico v. United States, and was there a dissent?
Justice Gorsuch delivered the opinion of the Court, joined by Chief Justice Roberts and Justices Thomas, Sotomayor, Kagan, Kavanaugh, Barrett, and Jackson. Justice Alito filed a dissenting opinion (8-1).
SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
In Barnes v. Felix, did the Supreme Court approve the Fifth Circuit's 'moment-of-threat' rule for analyzing an excessive-force claim, or require a different approach?
The Court rejected the moment-of-threat rule. An excessive-force claim under the Fourth Amendment must be analyzed for objective reasonableness from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene under the totality of the circumstances, and that inquiry has no time limit - facts and circumstances leading up to the shooting may bear on reasonableness, not just the precise moment of threat.
SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · single fact · hard
In Barnes v. Felix, how much time elapsed between when the car started moving and when it stopped, and how much time passed between when Officer Felix stepped onto the doorsill and when he fired his first shot?
About five seconds elapsed between when the car started moving and when it stopped; two seconds passed between the moment Felix stepped on the doorsill and the moment he fired his first shot.
SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In Bondi v. Vanderstok, did the Supreme Court hold that the ATF's 2022 rule covering weapon parts kits and unfinished frames or receivers was facially inconsistent with the Gun Control Act of 1968?
No. The Court held the ATF's rule is not facially inconsistent with the Gun Control Act. The Act's definition of 'firearm' reaches at least some weapon parts kits that may readily be converted to expel a projectile, and some partially complete frames or receivers; neither the rule of lenity nor constitutional avoidance applied.
SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, pp. 2, 3 · single fact · medium
According to the syllabus in Bondi v. Vanderstok, how did the number of untraceable 'ghost guns' reported by law enforcement agencies as used in crimes change between 2017 and 2021?
Ghost guns used in crimes rose from 1,600 in 2017 to more than 19,000 in 2021.
SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In United States v. Texas (No. 22-58), on what ground did the Supreme Court resolve Texas and Louisiana's challenge to the 2021 immigration-enforcement guidelines, and did it reach the merits of whether the guidelines were lawful?
The Court held that Texas and Louisiana lack Article III standing to challenge the Guidelines, and therefore did not reach the merits. Although the States alleged monetary costs (which can be an injury), the Court held this kind of suit - seeking to compel the Executive to make more arrests or prosecutions - is not one traditionally thought capable of resolution through the judicial process.
SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · single fact · hard
Among the Supreme Court opinions in the corpus (Barnes v. Felix, Bondi v. Vanderstok, United States v. Texas, and Rico v. United States), which ones reviewed a decision originating in the Fifth Circuit?
Barnes v. Felix (certiorari to the Fifth Circuit), Bondi v. Vanderstok (certiorari to the Fifth Circuit), and United States v. Texas (certiorari before judgment to the Fifth Circuit) all came from the Fifth Circuit. Rico v. United States came from the Ninth Circuit, not the Fifth.
SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In the FTC's Non-Compete Clause Rule (final rule), what is the effective date, and how does the rule treat EXISTING non-compete clauses differently for senior executives versus other workers?
The final rule is effective September 4, 2024. For existing non-competes (entered into before the effective date), those with senior executives can remain in force, while existing non-competes with other workers are not enforceable after the effective date. (Entering into new non-competes with any worker on or after the effective date is an unfair method of competition.)
FR-2024-09171-Non-Compete-Clause-Rule.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the TSA/DHS final rule 'Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses... Waiver for Mobile Driver's Licenses', what requirement does the rule temporarily waive, when does full enforcement of the REAL ID Act begin, and what is this rule's own effective date?
The rule temporarily waives, on a State-by-State basis, the requirement that mobile or digital driver's licenses (mDLs) be compliant with REAL ID requirements in order to be accepted by Federal agencies for official purposes. Full enforcement of the REAL ID Act and regulations begins May 7, 2025. This rule itself is effective November 25, 2024.
FR-2024-23881-Minimum-Standards-for-Driver-s-Licenses.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
The 'Securing the Border' interim final rule implements a Presidential Proclamation. On what date was the Proclamation signed, under which Immigration and Nationality Act sections, and what asylum-related matter does the IFR address?
It implements the Proclamation signed by the President on June 3, 2024, issued under sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), which found that entry of certain noncitizens during emergency border circumstances would be detrimental to U.S. interests and suspended/limited their entry. The interim final rule - issued jointly by DHS/USCIS and DOJ/EOIR - addresses limitations and conditions on asylum eligibility.
FR-2024-12435-Securing-the-Border.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
The U.S. Customs and Border Protection final rule on enforcement of copyrights and the Digital Millennium Copyright Act was issued under which 2015 statute, what three changes do its amendments make, and when is it effective?
It was issued under Title III of the Trade Facilitation and Trade Enforcement Act of 2015 (TFTEA). The amendments clarify the definition of 'piratical articles', simplify the detention process for goods suspected of violating the copyright laws, and prescribe new regulations enforcing the DMCA. The final rule is effective August 23, 2024.
FR-2024-13329-Enforcement-of-Copyrights-and-the-Digita.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
Among the four Supreme Court opinions in the corpus (Barnes v. Felix, Rico v. United States, Bondi v. Vanderstok, and United States v. Texas), which one VACATED the lower court's judgment rather than reversing it, and what happened to the others?
Barnes v. Felix is the one that vacated the lower-court judgment (91 F. 4th 393, vacated and remanded). The other three reversed: Rico v. United States (reversed and remanded), Bondi v. Vanderstok (reversed and remanded), and United States v. Texas (reversed).
SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 2 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
The State Department's interim final rule amending the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) creates a new exemption to facilitate defense trade and cooperation among which three countries, and under what statutory authority? (Note whether the expedited licensing process it adds covers the same set of countries.)
The new exemption facilitates defense trade and cooperation among Australia, the United Kingdom, and the United States, pursuant to section 38(l) of the Arms Export Control Act. Separately, the rule adds an expedited licensing process for certain defense article and defense service exports to Australia, the United Kingdom, and Canada - a different set of countries (Canada instead of the United States).
FR-2024-18043-International-Traffic-in-Arms-Regulation.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
The EPA's rule on management of hydrofluorocarbons implements which 2020 statute, and what kind of program does it establish (give several key requirements)?
It implements certain provisions of the American Innovation and Manufacturing (AIM) Act of 2020. The rule establishes an emissions reduction and reclamation program for managing hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), including requirements for leak repair and installation/use of automatic leak detection systems for certain refrigerant-containing equipment, servicing/repair of certain equipment using reclaimed HFCs, initial installation and servicing/repair of fire suppression equipment using recycled HFCs, technician training, and recycling of HFCs prior to equipment disposal.
FR-2024-21967-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Manageme.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The Department of Justice final rule revising Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act establishes accessibility requirements (specific technical standards and scoping requirements) for what equipment offered through state and local government services?
It establishes requirements - including specific technical standards and scoping requirements - for making accessible to the public the services, programs, and activities that State and local governments offer through their Medical Diagnostic Equipment (MDE). The rule is effective October 8, 2024.
FR-2024-16889-Nondiscrimination-on-the-Basis-of-Disabi.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The final rule amending Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 208 ('Occupant crash protection') adds a new seat belt use warning requirement for which seats, and to which vehicles does it apply (by gross vehicle weight rating)?
The rule requires a seat belt use warning system for rear seats; it also updates and enhances the existing driver's seat belt warning and extends the requirement to the front outboard passenger seat. It applies (with some exceptions) to passenger cars, trucks, most buses, and multipurpose passenger vehicles with a gross vehicle weight rating of 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds) or less, and makes related amendments to FMVSS No. 101 ('Controls and displays').
FR-2024-30340-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-O.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What does OSHA's final rule revising the personal protective equipment (PPE) standard for construction explicitly require?
OSHA's final rule revises its personal protective equipment standard for construction to explicitly require that the protective equipment must fit properly (i.e., fit the individual worker).
FR-2024-29220-Personal-Protective-Equipment-in-Constru.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The Commerce Department's Bureau of Industry and Security interim final rule establishing a framework for artificial intelligence diffusion revises Export Administration Regulations controls on what hardware, and what new AI-related control does it add?
The rule revises the Export Administration Regulations' (EAR) controls on advanced computing integrated circuits (ICs) and adds a new control on artificial intelligence (AI) model weights for certain advanced closed-weight dual-use AI models. It also adds new license exceptions and updates the Data Center Validated End User authorization to facilitate exports of advanced computing ICs to end users in destinations that do not raise national-security or foreign-policy concerns.
FR-2025-00636-Framework-for-Artificial-Intelligence-Di.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
The Federal Housing Finance Agency's final rule on fair lending, fair housing, and Equitable Housing Finance Plans codifies existing practices and adds new requirements - which regulated entities does it apply to, and what areas does it cover?
The FHFA final rule applies to Fannie Mae (Federal National Mortgage Association) and Freddie Mac (Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation) - collectively the Enterprises - and the Federal Home Loan Banks; collectively these are the regulated entities. It codifies existing FHFA practices and adds new requirements related to fair lending, fair housing, unfair or deceptive acts or practices (UDAP), and Equitable Housing Finance Plans, to address barriers to sustainable housing for underserved communities.
FR-2024-09559-Fair-Lending-Fair-Housing-and-Equitable.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The DHS final rule modernizing the H-1B program primarily amends regulations for which workers, and what are its three stated aims?
The rule mainly amends the regulations governing H-1B specialty occupation workers (some provisions narrowly impact other nonimmigrant classifications, including H-2, H-3, F-1, L-1, O, P, Q-1, R-1, E-3, and TN). Its stated aims are to modernize and improve the efficiency of the H-1B program, add benefits and flexibilities, and improve integrity measures.
FR-2024-29354-Modernizing-H-1B-Requirements-Providing.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The agency final rule changing its administrative rules for direct payment of authorized fees was prompted by which court decision, and what new requirement does it impose on entities and representatives?
The rule implements the U.S. Court of Appeals for the First Circuit's decision in Marasco & Nesselbush, LLP v. Collins, which enables the agency to directly pay authorized fees to entities (and their employees). To do so, it requires all entities that want direct payment of authorized fees and all representatives who want to be appointed on a claim, matter, or issue to register with the agency, and it standardizes the registration, appointment, and payment processes.
FR-2024-18497-Changes-to-the-Administrative-Rules-for.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
The two 'Securing the Border' rules in the corpus share RIN 1615-AC92 and implement the same June 3, 2024 Presidential Proclamation. What was the effective date of each (the interim final rule versus the later final rule), and what DOJ Attorney General Order number is assigned to each?
The interim final rule (IFR) became effective at 12:01 a.m. EDT on June 5, 2024, and carries A.G. Order No. 5943-2024. The subsequent final rule became effective at 12:01 a.m. EDT on October 1, 2024, and carries A.G. Order No. 6053-2024. Both share RIN 1615-AC92 and DHS Docket No. USCIS-2024-0006, and both implement the June 3, 2024 Proclamation issued under INA sections 212(f) and 215(a).
FR-2024-12435-Securing-the-Border.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-22602-Securing-the-Border.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two EPA Hydrofluorocarbon phasedown rules in the corpus were both finalized under the American Innovation and Manufacturing Act of 2020. Contrast the bottom-line economic estimate of the 'Management of Certain Hydrofluorocarbons and Substitutes' rule with that of the 'Review and Renewal of Eligibility for Application-Specific Allowances' rule.
The 'Management of Certain Hydrofluorocarbons and Substitutes' rule estimates a present-value net benefit of roughly $6.9 billion to $7.5 billion over 2026-2050 (climate benefits net of compliance costs, which themselves have a present value of about $1.3-1.5 billion). By contrast, the 'Review and Renewal of Eligibility for Application-Specific Allowances' rule is a small deregulatory action with a total estimated annual net cost SAVINGS of $130,936 (shown as $(130,936) in its summary table). Both were finalized under the AIM Act of 2020.
FR-2024-21967-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Manageme.pdf, p. 5 · FR-2025-16357-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Review-a.pdf, p. 44 · multi-source · hard
Compare the two EPA hydrofluorocarbon phasedown final rules in the corpus by their RIN, effective date, and the type of program or action each establishes.
The 'Management of Certain Hydrofluorocarbons and Substitutes' rule is RIN 2060-AV84, effective December 10, 2024, and establishes an emissions reduction and reclamation program (leak repair, automatic leak detection systems, reclaimed/recycled HFC servicing requirements, disposable-cylinder management, etc.). The 'Review and Renewal of Eligibility for Application-Specific Allowances' rule is RIN 2060-AV98, effective September 25, 2025, and finalizes the eligibility of six applications to continue receiving priority access to (application-specific) HFC allowances, along with the framework and methodology for those allowances.
FR-2024-21967-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Manageme.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2025-16357-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Review-a.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
What was the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) conversion factor established for CY 2025, and how did the CY 2026 PFS rule change it (note that CY 2026 introduces more than one conversion factor)?
The CY 2025 PFS final rule established a single conversion factor of $32.3465 (reflecting a 0.02 percent positive budget-neutrality adjustment, a 0.00 percent update adjustment factor, and removal of the temporary 2.93 percent payment increase). Beginning in 2026 there are two separate conversion factors: the 2026 qualifying APM conversion factor is a projected increase of $0.39 (1.2 percent) from the $32.3465 CY 2025 factor, and the 2026 nonqualifying APM conversion factor is a projected increase of $0.23 (0.7 percent) from the same $32.3465.
FR-2024-25382-Medicare-and-Medicaid-Programs-CY-2025-P.pdf, p. 3 · FR-2025-19787-Medicare-and-Medicaid-Programs-CY-2026-P.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
Two NHTSA Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards final rules were published in early January 2025. For the rule amending FMVSS No. 208 (seat belt warning systems) and the rule amending FMVSS No. 225/213b (child restraint anchorage systems), give the effective date and the key compliance/phase-in date(s) of each.
The FMVSS No. 208 seat belt warning rule (RIN 2127-AL37) is effective March 4, 2025, with compliance dates of September 1, 2026 for the front seat belt warning requirements and September 1, 2027 for the rear seat belt warning requirements. The FMVSS No. 225/213b child restraint anchorage rule (RIN 2127-AL20) is effective March 10, 2025, with a 3-year phase-in for FMVSS No. 225 beginning September 1, 2028 (20 percent of applicable vehicles), then 50 percent from September 1, 2029, and 100 percent on and after September 1, 2030.
FR-2024-30340-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-O.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-31142-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-C.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
The corpus contains two NHTSA final rules that each fulfill a mandate from the same 2012 statute. Which statute is it, and what distinct mandate from that statute does each rule (the FMVSS No. 208 seat belt warning rule and the FMVSS No. 225/213b child restraint anchorage rule) carry out?
Both rules fulfill mandates of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21, Pub. L. 112-141). The FMVSS No. 208 rule completes NHTSA's response to a MAP-21 mandate directing NHTSA to initiate a rulemaking to require a seat belt warning for the rear seats of motor vehicles (and it was issued under the National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act). The FMVSS No. 225/213b rule fulfills MAP-21 Section 31502, which requires NHTSA to improve the ease-of-use for lower anchorages and tethers in all rear seat seating positions (where feasible).
FR-2024-30340-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-O.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-31142-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-C.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
DHS/USCIS published two 'Modernizing' immigration final rules on December 18, 2024. For the H-1B modernization rule and the H-2 program modernization rule, give each rule's RIN, the CFR part(s) it amends, and its effective date.
The H-1B rule ('Modernizing H-1B Requirements, Providing Flexibility in the F-1 Program, and Program Improvements Affecting Other Nonimmigrant Workers') is RIN 1615-AC70, amends 8 CFR Part 214, and is effective January 17, 2025. The H-2 rule ('Modernizing H-2 Program Requirements, Oversight, and Worker Protections') is RIN 1615-AC76, amends 8 CFR Parts 214 and 274a, and is also effective January 17, 2025.
FR-2024-29354-Modernizing-H-1B-Requirements-Providing.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-29353-Modernizing-H-2-Program-Requirements-Ove.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Across the Medicare PFS rules for CY 2025 and CY 2026, how many conversion factors did the law require for each year, and what statutory provision drives the move to multiple conversion factors in 2026?
For CY 2025 the rule established a single PFS conversion factor ($32.3465). For CY 2026, as required by section 1848(d)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act, there are two separate conversion factors beginning in 2026: a qualifying APM conversion factor (for items/services furnished by a qualifying APM participant as defined in section 1833(z)(2) of the Act) and a nonqualifying APM conversion factor for other items and services, each equal to the prior year's factor (for CY 2026, the single CY 2025 conversion factor) multiplied by the applicable update under section 1848(d)(20).
FR-2024-25382-Medicare-and-Medicaid-Programs-CY-2025-P.pdf, p. 3 · FR-2025-19787-Medicare-and-Medicaid-Programs-CY-2026-P.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
In NHTSA's final rule amending FMVSS No. 208, what is the estimated minimum compliance cost of the new REAR seat belt warning requirement, what is the cost of adding the front outboard passenger seat warning, and roughly what total net benefits does the final rule produce?
NHTSA estimates the minimum cost to comply with the rear seat belt warning requirements is $166.44 million (based on a per-vehicle cost of $19.59 for 53.1 percent of 16 million affected new vehicles). The cost to equip the front outboard passenger seat warning on the remaining 4 percent of the new fleet (16 million) is $1.36 million (= $2.13 x 0.04 x 16 million). Combining the front-outboard and rear requirements, the final rule's total net benefits are about $651.29 million (low rear-belt-use increase) to $831.51 million (high increase) at a 3 percent discount rate, and about $496.28 million to $642.39 million at a 7 percent discount rate.
FR-2024-30340-Federal-Motor-Vehicle-Safety-Standards-O.pdf, pp. 4, 5, 6 · multi-source · hard
In EPA's 'Management of Certain Hydrofluorocarbons and Substitutes' rule, over the 2026-2050 period what is the present value of the rule's compliance costs at the various discount rates, and what is the resulting present-value net benefit?
Over 2026-2050, the present value of the rule's compliance costs (inclusive of refrigerant savings) is about $1.5 billion at a 2 percent discount rate, $1.3 billion at a 3 percent discount rate, or $0.9 billion at a 7 percent discount rate (in 2022 dollars discounted to 2024). Taking both benefits and compliance costs into account, the rule yields a present-value net benefit (climate benefits monetized via the social cost of HFCs, discounted at 3 percent, minus compliance costs) of $6.9 billion (with compliance costs discounted at 2 percent) to $7.5 billion (with compliance costs discounted at 7 percent). The gross climate benefit of avoiding the emissions is estimated at $8.4 billion.
FR-2024-21967-Phasedown-of-Hydrofluorocarbons-Manageme.pdf, pp. 4, 5 · multi-source · hard
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service published two Final Rules for the 2025-26 migratory game bird hunting season that share the same RIN 1018-BH65 and Docket No. FWS-HQ-MB-2024-0127. One is titled "Migratory Bird Hunting; Final 2025-26 Frameworks for Migratory Bird Hunting Regulations" and the other is "Migratory Bird Hunting; 2025-26 Seasons for Certain Migratory Game Birds." For EACH rule, state (a) its position in the rulemaking series ("third in a series" vs. "final in the series"), (b) the date the rule takes effect, and (c) what it does — i.e., which rule establishes the frameworks from which States select season dates and limits, versus which rule prescribes the actual seasons, hours, areas, and bag/possession limits.
Both Final Rules share RIN 1018-BH65 and Docket No. FWS-HQ-MB-2024-0127. The Frameworks rule ("Migratory Bird Hunting; Final 2025-26 Frameworks for Migratory Bird Hunting Regulations") is "the third in a series of proposed and final rules," takes effect on August 18, 2025, and establishes "the final frameworks from which States may select season dates, limits, and other options for the 2025-26 migratory game bird hunting season." The Seasons rule ("Migratory Bird Hunting; 2025-26 Seasons for Certain Migratory Game Birds") is "the final in the series of proposed, supplemental, and final rulemaking documents," takes effect on August 22, 2025, and "prescribes the seasons, hours, areas, and daily bag and possession limits for hunting migratory game birds." In short: the Frameworks rule (effective August 18, 2025) sets the limits from which the States select, and the Seasons rule (effective August 22, 2025) sets the actual hunting seasons based on the States' selections.
FR-2025-15703-Migratory-Bird-Hunting-Final-2025-26-Fra.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2025-16192-Migratory-Bird-Hunting-2025-26-Seasons-f.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Three NOAA Office of National Marine Sanctuaries final rules (all under 15 CFR Part 922) each designate a national marine sanctuary and state its total area in square statute miles: Papahanaumokuakea National Marine Sanctuary, Chumash Heritage National Marine Sanctuary (CHNMS), and the Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary (FKNMS). Using the square-statute-mile figure given in each final rule, rank the three sanctuaries from largest to smallest and give each area, and state by approximately how many square statute miles the largest exceeds the second-largest.
Ranked largest to smallest by the square-statute-mile figure in each final rule: (1) Papahanaumokuakea National Marine Sanctuary at approximately 582,570 square statute miles (439,910 square nautical miles); (2) Chumash Heritage National Marine Sanctuary at 4,543 square miles (mi2) (3,431 square nautical miles (nmi2)); (3) the Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary, which encompasses approximately 3,800 square miles. Papahanaumokuakea is by far the largest, exceeding the second-largest (Chumash Heritage at 4,543 mi2) by approximately 578,027 square statute miles (582,570 - 4,543 = 578,027). All three are final rules issued under 15 CFR Part 922 by NOAA's Office of National Marine Sanctuaries.
FR-2024-30576-Papah-naumoku-kea-National-Marine-Sanctu.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-23607-Chumash-Heritage-National-Marine-Sanctua.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2025-00496-Regulations-for-the-Florida-Keys-Nationa.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
OSHA published two Hazard Communication Standard rulemaking documents that both carry RIN 1218-AC93 and Docket No. OSHA-2019-0001: the original final rule and a later "Corrections" document. For each, give its exact effective date, and identify which of the two is the substantive rule that amended the HCS to align with the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) "primarily Revision 7 (Rev. 7)."
Both documents share RIN 1218-AC93 and Docket No. OSHA-2019-0001. (1) The original final rule ("Hazard Communication Standard," Final rule, 89 FR 44144, published Monday, May 20, 2024) is the substantive rule that amended the HCS to conform to the GHS "primarily Revision 7 (Rev. 7)"; it states "This final rule is effective July 19, 2024." (2) The later document ("Hazard Communication Standard; Corrections," a Final rule; correction and technical amendment, published Thursday, January 8, 2026) merely corrects inadvertent/typographical errors and states "The corrections in this document are effective January 8, 2026." So the July 19, 2024 effective date and the GHS Rev. 7 alignment belong to the original final rule, while January 8, 2026 is the effective date of only the corrections document.
FR-2024-08568-Hazard-Communication-Standard.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2026-00147-Hazard-Communication-Standard-Correction.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two NOAA Office of National Marine Sanctuaries final rules each set their effective date under section 304(b) of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act, with a 45-day Congressional review period beginning on the rule's publication date: the Chumash Heritage National Marine Sanctuary rule and the Lake Ontario National Marine Sanctuary rule. For each of these two sanctuaries, which sanctuary's 45-day Congressional review clock started earlier, on what publication date did that earlier clock begin, and what is the RIN of that earlier-published rule? Also give the RIN and publication date of the later rule.
The Lake Ontario National Marine Sanctuary rule's 45-day Congressional review clock started earlier. Both rules state that, pursuant to section 304(b) of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA) (16 U.S.C. 1434(b)), the designation and regulations take effect after the close of a review period of forty-five days of continuous session of Congress, beginning on the date on which the Federal rulemaking is published. For Lake Ontario National Marine Sanctuary (RIN 0648-BJ62), that publication date is June 6, 2024. For Chumash Heritage National Marine Sanctuary (RIN 0648-BL31), that publication date is October 16, 2024. Because June 6, 2024 is earlier than October 16, 2024, Lake Ontario (RIN 0648-BJ62) is the rule whose 45-day Congressional review clock started earlier; Chumash Heritage (RIN 0648-BL31) is the later rule, published October 16, 2024.
FR-2024-23607-Chumash-Heritage-National-Marine-Sanctua.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2024-11982-Lake-Ontario-National-Marine-Sanctuary-F.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In the Coast Guard's final rule "Cybersecurity in the Marine Transportation System" (Docket No. USCG-2022-0802, RIN 1625-AC77), on what date does the final rule become effective, and what total cost and annualized cost does the Coast Guard estimate the rule creates for industry and Government (including the discount rate and dollar-year basis)?
The final rule "Cybersecurity in the Marine Transportation System" is effective July 16, 2025. The Coast Guard estimates that the final rule creates costs for industry and Government of approximately $1.2 billion total and $138.7 million annualized, discounted at 2 percent (2022 dollars).
FR-2025-00708-Cybersecurity-in-the-Marine-Transportati.pdf, pp. 1, 5 · multi-source · hard
In EPA's final rule "Carbon Tetrachloride (CTC); Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)" (RIN 2070-AK82), on what date does the final rule become effective, under which specific TSCA statutory section (with its U.S.C. citation) is EPA issuing the rule, and what are the two contrasting operative actions EPA takes under that authority for (a) occupational conditions of use that are NOT prohibited versus (b) the additional conditions of use for which EPA understands use of CTC has already ceased?
The final rule is effective on January 17, 2025. EPA is issuing the rule under TSCA section 6(a) (15 U.S.C. 2605(a)). Under that authority, for occupational conditions of use of CTC that are not prohibited, EPA requires a Workplace Chemical Protection Program (WCPP), including an inhalation exposure concentration limit, direct dermal contact controls, and related workplace exposure controls; whereas for the additional conditions of use for which the Agency understands use of CTC has already ceased, EPA prohibits those conditions of use (i.e., prohibits the manufacture (including import), processing, distribution in commerce, and industrial/commercial use of CTC).
FR-2024-29517-Carbon-Tetrachloride-CTC-Regulation-Unde.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In NOAA's final rule "Deep Seabed Mining: Revisions to Regulations for Exploration License and Commercial Recovery Permit Applications" (15 CFR Parts 970 and 971, RIN 0648-BN96, Docket No. 260113-0029), what is the effective date of the rule, and what specific legal basis under the Administrative Procedure Act does NOAA give for making it effective on that date rather than after the usual delay? Combine the effective date stated in the DATES section with the APA reasoning explained later in the preamble.
The rule is effective January 21, 2026 — the date of publication (Federal Register Vol. 91, No. 13, Wednesday, January 21, 2026). NOAA made it effective on the date of publication, rather than after the APA's usual minimum 30-day delay of effective date following publication (5 U.S.C. 553(d)), because the rule "relieves a restriction" on the regulated community — namely the requirement of sequential license and permit applications, "a requirement that is not present in DSHMRA but that was established by NOAA's regulations." Under the APA exception for rules which grant or recognize an exemption or relieve a restriction (5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1)), the rule is exempt from the 30-day delay and is effective immediately. NOAA also noted it received no public comments expressing a need for additional time to comply.
FR-2026-01044-Deep-Seabed-Mining-Revisions-to-Regulati.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In FEMA's final rule "Updates to Floodplain Management and Protection of Wetlands Regulations To Implement the Federal Flood Risk Management Standard" (44 CFR Part 9, RIN 1660-AB12), on what date does the rule become effective, and according to the survey of Federal properties cited in the Executive Summary, how many individual Federal buildings and structures (and what combined replacement cost in 2020 dollars) were identified in the current 1 percent floodplain versus the current 0.2 percent floodplain?
The rule is effective September 9, 2024. A survey of Federal properties identified over 40,000 individual Federal buildings and structures with a combined replacement cost of $81 billion (in 2020 dollars) located in the current 1 percent floodplain, and approximately 160,000 structures with a total replacement cost of $493 billion (in 2020 dollars) located in the current 0.2 percent floodplain.
FR-2024-15169-Updates-to-Floodplain-Management-and-Pro.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In NOAA's final rule "Regulations for the Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary Management Review: Blueprint for Restoration" (Federal Register, Jan. 17, 2025): the Introduction describes the existing FKNMS as encompassing a certain area of coastal and ocean waters, while the later "Sanctuary Boundary" sections state the new area the final rule expands the sanctuary to. By how many square miles does the final rule increase the sanctuary's area, and separately, what tourism-economy figures (estimated tourism value, the share of Monroe County jobs it supports, and the approximate annual visitor count) does the rule cite to justify protecting that area?
The final rule increases the sanctuary's area by approximately 739 square miles: the existing Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary encompasses approximately 3,800 square miles of coastal and ocean waters (Introduction, p1), and NOAA is modifying the sanctuary boundary to expand the sanctuary's area from the existing 3,800 square miles to 4,539 square miles (Sanctuary Boundary sections, p4 and p6), an increase of 739 square miles. To justify protecting this area, the rule cites the linkage between the marine environment and the Florida Keys economy: tourism value to the Florida Keys economy was estimated at $2.4 billion (in 2018, the most recent year data were available), supporting 43% of jobs and employment in Monroe County, with the Florida Keys supporting more than 82,874 residents and approximately 5.13 million visitors annually (Rockport Analytics, 2019).
FR-2025-00496-Regulations-for-the-Florida-Keys-Nationa.pdf, pp. 1, 4, 6 · multi-source · hard
In NOAA's final rule "Regulations for the Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary Management Review: Blueprint for Restoration," what is the length and start date of the Congressional review period that triggers the effective date of the designation and regulations, which specific sections have their effective date delayed and until what date, and during the draft EIS public comment period how many distinct commenters submitted comment and what was the approximate total number of comments NOAA received?
Under section 304(b) of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act, the designation and regulations take effect after the close of a review period of forty-five (45) days of continuous session of Congress, beginning on the publication date, which is January 17, 2025. However, NOAA is delaying the effective date of §§ 922.163(a)(5)(x) and 922.164(e)(3), (f)(2), (g)(1), and (h)(1) until January 19, 2027. During the draft EIS public comment period (August 2019 to January 2020), NOAA received comment from 1,213 distinct commenters, with several letters and petitions with multiple signatories bringing the total to well over 35,000 comments.
FR-2025-00496-Regulations-for-the-Florida-Keys-Nationa.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the FTC's Non-Compete Clause Rule (16 CFR Parts 910 and 912, RIN 3084-AB74), on what effective date does the comprehensive ban on new non-competes take effect, how does the rule treat EXISTING non-competes for senior executives versus other workers on that date, and what is the Commission's estimate of how prevalent non-competes are in the U.S. economy (both the per-worker ratio and the absolute number of workers affected)?
The final rule is effective September 4, 2024 (stated as "The final rule is effective September 4, 2024" on p1 and "The final rule has an effective date of September 4, 2024" on p2). On that effective date the rule treats existing non-competes differently for senior executives than for other workers: existing non-competes with senior executives can remain in force (the final rule does not cover such agreements), while for workers who are not senior executives, existing non-competes are no longer enforceable after the final rule's effective date. As to prevalence, the Commission estimates that approximately one in five American workers—or approximately 30 million workers—is subject to a non-compete.
FR-2024-09171-Non-Compete-Clause-Rule.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In EPA's final rule "Greenhouse Gas Reporting Rule: Revisions and Confidentiality Determinations for Petroleum and Natural Gas Systems" (40 CFR Part 98, RIN 2060-AV83), the rule deliberately carries two effective dates. State the general effective date that applies to the rule overall, and separately state the earlier effective date that applies specifically to the three excepted sections, naming each of those three sections and its corresponding amendatory instruction number.
The rule is effective January 1, 2025 generally, except for § 98.233 (amendatory instruction 12), § 98.236 (amendatory instruction 16), and § 98.238 (amendatory instruction 19), which are effective July 15, 2024. The Table of Contents confirms this split under Section IV ("Effective Date of the Final Amendments"), with subsection A covering "Amendments That Are Effective on January 1, 2025" and subsection B covering "Amendments That Are Effective July 15, 2024." The incorporation by reference of certain material listed in the final rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of January 1, 2025.
FR-2024-08988-Greenhouse-Gas-Reporting-Rule-Revisions.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In OSHA's final rule for the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (RIN 1218-AC93), on what date does the rule become effective, which specific GHS revision does this rulemaking primarily align the HCS with, and what net cost savings per year does the Final Economic Analysis (FEA) estimate at both the 7 percent and the 3 percent discount rates?
The final rule is effective July 19, 2024. This rulemaking amends the HCS primarily to align with Revision 7 (Rev. 7) of the GHS, published in 2017 (the 2012 update had aligned the HCS with Revision 3 (Rev. 3)). In the Final Economic Analysis (FEA), OSHA estimates that, annualized at a 7 percent discount rate, the final rule would result in net cost savings of $29.8 million per year, and annualized at a 3 percent discount rate, net cost savings of $30.7 million per year.
FR-2024-08568-Hazard-Communication-Standard.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the HUD HOME Investment Partnerships Program: Program Updates and Streamlining final rule (Docket No. FR-6144-F-03), the Background section describes both the program's annual scale and its fiscal year 2023 production. Aggregating those facts: approximately how much does the HOME program allocate each year and among how many States/localities, what fraction of every program dollar must participating jurisdictions (PJs) match, and in fiscal year 2023 how many rental housing units and how many homebuyer units did PJs complete, how many low-income homeowners were assisted to repair their homes, and to how many low-income households did PJs provide tenant-based rental assistance?
Each year the HOME program allocates approximately $1.5 billion among States and approximately 600 localities nationwide, and PJs must match 25 cents of every dollar in program funds. In fiscal year 2023, PJs completed 6,848 rental housing units and 4,051 homebuyer units, assisted 2,717 low-income homeowners to repair their homes, and provided tenant-based rental assistance to 13,016 low-income households.
FR-2024-29824-HOME-Investment-Partnerships-Program-Pro.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In NOAA's final rule designating the Lake Ontario National Marine Sanctuary (LONMS), aggregate the following facts the rule states: (a) the size of the sanctuary boundary in both nautical and statute square miles and the State that NOAA will co-manage it with; (b) the single regulatory provision whose effective date NOAA is staying, and the date until which it is stayed; and (c) the confirmed inventory of known shipwrecks and known submerged aircraft, including which one shipwreck is listed on the National Register of Historic Places.
The sanctuary boundary encompasses 1,300 nmi2 (1,722 mi2) of eastern Lake Ontario waters, and NOAA will co-manage LONMS with New York State. NOAA is staying the effective date of section 922.223(a)(3) until July 21, 2026 (all other regulatory provisions become effective on the effective date of the final rule). LONMS contains 41 known shipwrecks and one known submerged aircraft, including one shipwreck (the St. Peter) listed on the National Register of Historic Places.
FR-2024-11982-Lake-Ontario-National-Marine-Sanctuary-F.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Final 2025–26 Frameworks for Migratory Bird Hunting Regulations rule, what is this rule's stated place in the rulemaking sequence and its effective date, and—pulling from the economic/Required Determinations discussion—what was the estimated consumer surplus associated with the liberal regulations (Alternative 4) across all flyways for the 2024–25 season, and approximately how much are migratory bird hunters estimated to spend at small businesses during the 2025–26 season?
The rule is described as the third in a series of proposed and final rules that establish regulations for the 2025–26 migratory game bird hunting season, and it takes effect on August 18, 2025. In the economic discussion, the estimated consumer surplus associated with liberal regulations (Alternative 4) issued for the 2024–25 season across all flyways was $624 million to $816 million (2024$), and it is estimated that migratory bird hunters will spend approximately $2.5 billion (2024$) at small businesses during the 2025–26 migratory bird hunting season.
FR-2025-15703-Migratory-Bird-Hunting-Final-2025-26-Fra.pdf, pp. 1, 15, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service final rule designating critical habitat for the rayed bean, sheepnose, snuffbox, and spectaclecase mussels (Docket No. FWS-R3-ES-2024-0144), how many river miles (rmi) and how many units of critical habitat are designated specifically for the snuffbox and specifically for the spectaclecase; what is the total unique rmi and total number of units across how many States for all four species combined; and by approximately how many river miles did the final rule increase the RABE 9: Allegheny River critical habitat designation relative to the proposed rule?
For snuffbox (Epioblasma triquetra), the Service designates approximately 2,425 rmi (3,902 rkm) in 38 units; for spectaclecase (Cumberlandia monodonta), approximately 1,140 rmi (1,835 rkm) in 12 units. Because portions of the four species' designations overlap, in total approximately 3,814 unique rmi (6,138 rkm) of critical habitat within 76 units across 17 States fall within the designation boundaries. In the final rule, the revisions extending the RABE 9: Allegheny River critical habitat designation result in an increase of approximately 49 rmi (79 rkm) of critical habitat from the areas the Service proposed.
FR-2026-08146-Endangered-and-Threatened-Wildlife-and-P.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In NOAA's final rule designating the Papahanaumokuakea National Marine Sanctuary (Federal Register Vol. 90, No. 10, January 16, 2025), what is the total area of the sanctuary in both square statute miles and square nautical miles, when does the designation take effect, and which two specific Presidential Proclamations originally established the two components of the underlying Marine National Monument (the original PMNM and the Monument Expansion Area), including each proclamation's number and date?
The sanctuary consists of a total area of approximately 582,570 square statute miles (439,910 square nautical miles) of Pacific Ocean waters surrounding the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands. The designation and regulations take effect and become final after the close of a review period of forty-five days of continuous session of Congress, beginning on the date the Federal rulemaking is published, which is January 16, 2025. The underlying Papahanaumokuakea Marine National Monument was established under the Antiquities Act of 1906 through two original components: the original Papahanaumokuakea Marine National Monument (PMNM, 0-50 nm) was established by President Bush through Presidential Proclamation 8031 of June 15, 2006; and the Monument Expansion Area (MEA, 50-200 nm) was established by President Obama through Presidential Proclamation 9478 of August 26, 2016.
FR-2024-30576-Papah-naumoku-kea-National-Marine-Sanctu.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Among five Supreme Court matters in the corpus - Barnes v. Felix, Rico v. United States, Bondi v. Vanderstok, United States v. Texas, and Ohio v. Environmental Protection Agency - what was the disposition of each (affirmed, reversed, vacated, remanded, or stay granted)?
Barnes v. Felix - vacated and remanded; Rico v. United States - reversed and remanded; Bondi v. Vanderstok - reversed and remanded; United States v. Texas - reversed; Ohio v. EPA - applications for stay granted.
SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 2 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 27 · SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-Ohio-v-EPA-23a349.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
Order these five Supreme Court matters from earliest to latest by decision date: Trump v. Anderson, Ohio v. EPA, Trump v. United States, Bondi v. Vanderstok, and Barnes v. Felix.
Earliest to latest: Trump v. Anderson (Mar 4, 2024); Ohio v. EPA (Jun 27, 2024); Trump v. United States (Jul 1, 2024); Bondi v. Vanderstok (Mar 26, 2025); Barnes v. Felix (May 15, 2025).
SCOTUS-Trump-v-Anderson-23-719.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Ohio-v-EPA-23a349.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
From which U.S. Court of Appeals did each of these five Supreme Court cases come: United States v. Texas, Barnes v. Felix, Bondi v. Vanderstok, Rico v. United States, and Trump v. United States?
United States v. Texas, Barnes v. Felix, and Bondi v. Vanderstok came from the Fifth Circuit; Rico v. United States from the Ninth Circuit; Trump v. United States from the D.C. Circuit.
SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 1 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Which Justice authored the majority opinion in each of these five cases: United States v. Texas, Barnes v. Felix, Bondi v. Vanderstok, Rico v. United States, and Trump v. United States?
Justice Kavanaugh (United States v. Texas); Justice Kagan (Barnes v. Felix); Justice Gorsuch (Bondi v. Vanderstok AND Rico v. United States); Chief Justice Roberts (Trump v. United States).
SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 2 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 8 · multi-source · hard
Among these five Supreme Court cases - United States v. Texas, Barnes v. Felix, Bondi v. Vanderstok, Rico v. United States, and Trump v. United States - which was decided by a unanimous Court and which were divided?
Only Barnes v. Felix was unanimous (Kagan, J., for a unanimous Court). The other four were divided (each drew at least one dissent): United States v. Texas, Bondi v. Vanderstok, Rico v. United States, and Trump v. United States.
SCOTUS-22-58.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-23-1239.pdf, p. 2 · SCOTUS-23-852.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-24-1056.pdf, p. 3 · SCOTUS-Trump-v-US-23-939.pdf, p. 8 · multi-source · hard
Rank these four NOAA national marine sanctuaries by total area from largest to smallest, using the figure each final rule states: Papahanaumokuakea, the Florida Keys, Chumash Heritage, and Lake Ontario.
Largest to smallest: Papahanaumokuakea ~582,570 sq mi; Florida Keys ~4,539 sq mi; Chumash Heritage ~4,500 sq mi; Lake Ontario ~1,724 sq mi.
FR-2024-30576-Papah-naumoku-kea-National-Marine-Sanctu.pdf, p. 1 · FR-2025-00496-Regulations-for-the-Florida-Keys-Nationa.pdf, p. 4 · FR-2024-23607-Chumash-Heritage-National-Marine-Sanctua.pdf, p. 7 · FR-2024-11982-Lake-Ontario-National-Marine-Sanctuary-F.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
What is the recommended starting dosage of Zepbound (tirzepatide)?
2.5 mg injected subcutaneously once weekly
FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What is the recommended starting dosage of Ozempic (semaglutide), and what is its purpose?
0.25 mg once weekly for 4 weeks, for treatment initiation (not intended for glycemic control)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · hard
Ozempic and Zepbound are both once-weekly subcutaneous injectables - how do their drug mechanisms and FDA-approved indications differ?
Ozempic (semaglutide) is a GLP-1 receptor agonist indicated to improve glycemic control in type 2 diabetes (and to reduce MACE risk in T2D with established cardiovascular disease); Zepbound (tirzepatide) is a dual GIP and GLP-1 receptor agonist indicated for chronic weight management in obesity (BMI >=30) or overweight (BMI >=27) with a weight-related comorbidity
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
What boxed warning do both Ozempic and Zepbound carry, and which patients are contraindicated as a result?
Boxed warning: Risk of Thyroid C-Cell Tumors. Contraindicated in patients with a personal or family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) or Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia syndrome type 2 (MEN 2)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · medium
In Ozempic's placebo-controlled trials (Table 1), what percentage of patients on the OZEMPIC 1 mg dose reported nausea, versus placebo?
20.3% on OZEMPIC 1 mg vs 6.1% on placebo (15.8% on the 0.5 mg dose)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · hard
In Ozempic's Table 1 of common adverse reactions, what percentage of patients on the OZEMPIC 0.5 mg dose experienced diarrhea?
8.5%
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · hard
What is the recommended starting dosage of Ozempic, and after how long is it increased and to what dose?
0.25 mg subcutaneously once weekly for 4 weeks, then increase to 0.5 mg once weekly
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
In Ozempic's placebo-controlled trials, what percentage of patients discontinued treatment due to gastrointestinal adverse reactions on the 1 mg dose, versus placebo?
3.8% on OZEMPIC 1 mg vs 0.4% on placebo (3.1% on the 0.5 mg dose)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · hard
In the pooled placebo-controlled Ozempic trials, what was the overall rate of gastrointestinal adverse reactions on the 1 mg dose compared with placebo?
36.4% on OZEMPIC 1 mg vs 15.3% on placebo (32.7% on the 0.5 mg dose)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · medium
Ozempic carries a boxed warning and is contraindicated in patients with a personal or family history of which thyroid cancer or endocrine syndrome?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), or Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia syndrome type 2 (MEN 2)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
What is the recommended standard PAXLOVID dosage and treatment duration for a patient with normal renal function?
300 mg nirmatrelvir (two 150 mg tablets) plus 100 mg ritonavir (one 100 mg tablet), all three tablets taken together orally twice daily for 5 days
FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · medium
How is the PAXLOVID dose adjusted for patients with moderate renal impairment (eGFR >=30 to <60 mL/min)?
Reduced to 150 mg nirmatrelvir (one 150 mg tablet) plus 100 mg ritonavir (one 100 mg tablet), taken together twice daily for 5 days
FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · hard
PAXLOVID is supplied in two different co-packaged dose packs distinguished by their nirmatrelvir;ritonavir strengths. What are the two strength combinations?
300 mg;100 mg (standard) and 150 mg;100 mg (for moderate renal impairment)
FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
What is the recommended starting dosage of Zepbound, and what is the maximum dosage?
Starting dosage 2.5 mg subcutaneously once weekly (a 4-week initiation dose); maximum dosage 15 mg once weekly
FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · medium
What are the three recommended maintenance dosages of Zepbound for adults, and in what increments is the dose escalated?
Maintenance dosages of 5 mg, 10 mg, or 15 mg once weekly; escalated in 2.5 mg increments after at least 4 weeks on the current dose
FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 4 · single fact · hard
For chronic weight management, what BMI thresholds qualify an adult for Zepbound?
BMI of 30 kg/m2 or greater (obesity), or 27 kg/m2 or greater (overweight) with at least one weight-related comorbid condition
FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
What is the recommended dosage of Lynparza (olaparib), and how should the tablets be taken?
300 mg taken orally twice daily, with or without food; tablets are swallowed whole (do not chew, crush, dissolve, or divide)
FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 6 · single fact · medium
In what two tablet strengths is Lynparza supplied, and what is the recommended dose of bevacizumab when used together with Lynparza?
Tablets of 150 mg and 100 mg; bevacizumab is dosed at 15 mg/kg every three weeks when used with Lynparza
FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · single fact · hard
Lynparza is indicated for cancers carrying what type of genetic mutation?
A deleterious or suspected deleterious germline or somatic BRCA mutation (BRCA-mutated cancer)
FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
Which weekly injectable has the higher recommended starting dose - Ozempic or Zepbound - and what are the two starting doses?
Zepbound starts at 2.5 mg once weekly versus Ozempic's 0.25 mg once weekly - Zepbound's starting dose is 10x higher
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
Both Paxlovid and Lynparza are dosed twice daily. Compare their standard adult regimens, including how long each is taken.
Paxlovid: 300 mg nirmatrelvir + 100 mg ritonavir twice daily for 5 days (a fixed short course); Lynparza: 300 mg twice daily taken continuously
FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 4 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 6 · multi-source · hard
Ozempic and Zepbound are both injectable incretin-based drugs. What is each one's primary FDA-approved indication?
Ozempic: glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes (and reducing major adverse cardiovascular events); Zepbound: chronic weight management in adults with obesity (BMI >=30) or overweight (BMI >=27) with a weight-related comorbidity
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
Among the four FDA-approved drugs Ozempic, Zepbound, Paxlovid, and Lynparza, which are dosed once weekly and which are dosed twice daily?
Once weekly (subcutaneous injection): Ozempic and Zepbound; twice daily (oral): Paxlovid and Lynparza
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 4 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 4 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 6 · multi-source · hard
In Figure 3 of the trachoma transmission-dynamics paper (prevalence of C. trachomatis infection and trachomatous inflammation-follicular [TF] in villages J and B), which quantity is consistently higher across the study period - the mean infection prevalence or the mean TF prevalence - and roughly how does infection prevalence in the larger village (J) change?
Mean TF prevalence is consistently higher than mean infection prevalence in both villages throughout the study period. In the larger village (J), mean infection prevalence starts around 18% and declines to about 12% over the period.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1014313-Dynamics-of-trachoma-infection-in-West-A.pdf, p. 9 · single fact · hard
What drug class is bexagliflozin (BRENZAVVY), what is its recommended dose, and below what eGFR is it not recommended?
Bexagliflozin (BRENZAVVY) is a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The recommended dose is 20 mg once daily, taken in the morning with or without food. It is not recommended if eGFR is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2.
FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
SUBOXONE sublingual film combines which two active drugs (and what are their pharmacologic roles), and what is the usual maintenance target dosage?
SUBOXONE combines buprenorphine, a partial-opioid agonist, and naloxone, an opioid antagonist, and is indicated for treatment of opioid dependence. The usual maintenance target dosage is 16 mg/4 mg as a single daily dose.
FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In the multiscale model of cerebral blood circulation through the Circle of Willis, which communicating artery acted as the earliest and most sensitive functional collateral pathway, and how did the communicating arteries behave under normal baseline conditions?
The anterior communicating artery (ACoA) acted as the earliest and most sensitive functional collateral pathway, while the posterior communicating arteries (PCoAs) exhibited structure-dependent engagement. Under normal baseline conditions the communicating arteries remained nearly inactive, showing negligible across-flow, in agreement with clinical measurements.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1013853-Multiscale-modeling-of-blood-circulation.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of mannose-binding lectin 2 (MBL2) in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), was MBL2 expression increased or decreased in HCC, how did it correlate with prognosis, and what role did secreted MBL2 play with respect to NK cells?
MBL2 expression was markedly decreased in HCC and positively correlated with HCC prognosis. Secreted MBL2 recruited and activated natural killer (NK) cells in the tumor microenvironment - particularly upregulating infiltration of NKp46+ NK cells - acting as an NK cell-activating cytokine via the integrin beta1/FAK/AKT pathway, and promoted NK-cell production of IL-13 and IL-25.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003793-Mannose-binding-lectin-2-secreted-by-hep.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
Among the FDA-labeled drug products in the corpus (Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, Suboxone, Paxlovid, Lynparza), which are combination products containing two active ingredients, and what are those ingredients?
Two are combination products: SUBOXONE (buprenorphine, a partial-opioid agonist, plus naloxone, an opioid antagonist) and PAXLOVID (nirmatrelvir tablets co-packaged with ritonavir tablets). The others are single-agent: Ozempic (semaglutide), Zepbound (tirzepatide), Brenzavvy (bexagliflozin), and Lynparza (olaparib). Note that Zepbound's tirzepatide is a dual GIP/GLP-1 receptor agonist but a single molecule, not a combination product.
FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In the study of the JAK/STAT pathway and Langat virus (a tick-borne encephalitis virus surrogate) in the tick Haemaphysalis longicornis, how does the JAK/STAT pathway promote viral infection - what mediator is involved, and by what cellular process does it support viral replication?
The JAK/STAT pathway promotes Langat virus infection not by directly interacting with viral proteins, but indirectly through a low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein (LRP) whose expression is STAT-regulated. This atypical tick LRP lacks a transmembrane domain and localizes intracellularly; it promotes lipophagy, breaking down lipid droplets to provide energy that supports viral replication. Silencing LRP reduced infection while ectopic expression enhanced it.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003797-A-non-canonical-JAK-STAT-pathway-promote.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of population coding in cortical neurons using dynamic gain analysis, what three parameters of neurons and populations determine how accurately information can be encoded, and what surprising matching did the authors find in layer 4 of the mouse barrel cortex?
The three parameters are cell number, cell size, and the correlation time of the background noise. In layer 4 of the mouse barrel cortex, dendrite size and background correlations are precisely matched with the number of neurons such that even a single thalamocortical spike at the input is reliably reflected in the population output. This encoding performance can be modulated by the channels mediating the M-current, suggesting layer-4 coding may vary as a function of brain state.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003789-Encoding-performance-of-cortical-neurons.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of BMP signaling and the nervous system across cnidarians, did the authors find BMP signaling to be 'anti-neural' as in vertebrates and arthropods, and what do they propose about its ancestral role?
No - contrary to its 'anti-neural' role in centralized-nervous-system Bilateria (vertebrates, arthropods), in the cnidarian Nematostella BMP signaling is active in distinct neuronal populations and is a positive regulator of many neuronal genes, including the top-tier neural progenitor marker soxB(2). The authors propose that one ancestral role of BMP signaling may have been promoting neurogenesis, and that its apparent 'anti-neural' function in vertebrates and arthropods is a consequence of its global role in dorsoventral patterning of the ectoderm.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003803-The-anti-neural-role-of-BMP-signaling-is.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the phenotype-space model of coevolutionary dynamics between viruses and defective interfering particles (DIPs), what four qualitative regimes emerge, and what conditions most strongly promote sustained coevolutionary 'chase' dynamics?
The model reveals four qualitative regimes: (1) viral-DIP coexistence, (2) sustained coevolutionary (Red Queen) chase dynamics, (3) DIP extinction, and (4) mutual extinction. Sustained chase dynamics are most strongly promoted by intermediate interference strength and low decay rates; higher levels drive collapse of one or both populations. (Population-level oscillations correspond to predator-prey-like cycles, i.e., the von Magnus effect.)
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1014300-Coevolutionary-dynamics-of-viruses-and-t.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study using indocyanine green-conjugated gas vesicles (ICG-GVs) for photothermal therapy of bladder cancer, why is ICG's clinical use limited, what were the ICG-GV particle size and ICG loading rate, and what tumor outcome was achieved?
ICG is the only FDA-approved photothermal agent, but its clinical use is limited by poor stability, short blood half-life, and lack of tumor targeting. The ICG-GVs had a uniform morphology of about 200 nm with a 58% ICG loading rate and enabled trimodal imaging (ultrasound, near-infrared fluorescence, photoacoustic). Ultrasound-triggered gas-vesicle cavitation enhanced intratumoral ICG delivery, achieving tumor temperatures above 60 degrees C upon laser irradiation, leading to complete tumor regression and prolonged survival without detectable toxicity (in an MB49 murine bladder-cancer xenograft).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003786-Acoustic-delivery-of-indocyanine-green-v.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the multimodal workflow for inferring viral and immune kinetics in human airway epithelium (HAE), what framework was used for neural posterior estimation, why was spatial information important, and what fraction of SARS-CoV-2 infections did it estimate were due to cell-associated transmission?
The workflow combined time-resolved bulk measurements with spatially-explicit image information and used BayesFlow - a framework for simulation-based, amortized neural posterior estimation - via a combination of trained neural networks. Integrating spatial information proved essential to reliably infer viral transmission kinetics and innate immune interactions at the tissue level. Applied to SARS-CoV-2 dynamics in HAE cultures, it estimated that 84% [58%, 100%] of all infections were due to cell-associated transmission.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1014248-Multimodal-data-integration-to-determine.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of how Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Klebsiella pneumoniae interact, what was the nature of the interaction, which molecules drove it, and was it consistent across bacterial strains?
The interaction is antagonistic: P. aeruginosa restricts the growth of K. pneumoniae. The inhibition is driven by phenazine production in P. aeruginosa - specifically the secondary metabolites pyocyanin and pyorubin, which are both necessary and sufficient to suppress K. pneumoniae growth. The antagonism is strain-dependent (both K. pneumoniae's susceptibility to phenazines and P. aeruginosa's ability to restrict it vary between strains), and the necessity of phenazine production is specific to the site of infection.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003809-Environmental-redox-conditions-and-strai.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
For each of the six FDA-labeled drug products in the corpus - Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, Lynparza, Paxlovid, and Suboxone - what is its mechanism/drug class?
Ozempic (semaglutide): a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist. Zepbound (tirzepatide): a dual GIP and GLP-1 receptor agonist. Brenzavvy (bexagliflozin): a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor. Lynparza (olaparib): a poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitor. Paxlovid: nirmatrelvir, a SARS-CoV-2 main protease (Mpro/3CLpro) inhibitor, co-packaged with ritonavir, an HIV-1 protease inhibitor used as a pharmacokinetic booster. Suboxone: buprenorphine, a partial-opioid agonist, combined with naloxone, an opioid antagonist.
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In the study applying computational topology to abstract art, what topological method was used, and what did the authors find about how genuine artworks violate Alexander duality compared with 'pseudo-art'?
The authors used persistent homology (a method from computational topology) to analyse image structures and composition at multiple scales. They found that the extent to which artistic images violate a topological duality (Alexander duality) is significantly different from that of pseudo-art, and that a diverse group of eminent abstract artists appear to favour a special rate of violation close to a specific value. The method also distinguished two sets of abstract paintings and allowed topological features to be mapped onto gaze-fixation heat maps.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1014156-Art-s-hidden-topology-A-window-into-huma.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the three-dimensional continuum model of platelet aggregation under flow, what factor mediates the shear-dependent interactions, how many platelet species does the model track, and what thrombus architecture does it reproduce?
Shear-dependent platelet interactions are mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF). The model tracks seven platelet species and integrates shear-dependent kinetics for vWF-mediated binding and activation. It reproduces the core-shell thrombus architecture, with activated platelets concentrated near the collagen surface (the core) and unactivated platelets forming an outer shell. (It was parameterized with microfluidic experiments at shear rates of 300/s and 1500/s, and captures extravascular geometries where shear exceeds 8000/s.)
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pcbi.1014241-A-three-dimensional-shear-dependent-cont.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study using a panel of recombinant SARS-CoV-2 viruses to map innate-immune suppression, how many recombinant viruses were generated and by what method, and which two viral proteins, when mutated, most increased the type I interferon response?
The researchers used a SARS-CoV-2 bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) with en passant mutagenesis to recover a panel of 12 infectious recombinant viruses, each carrying mutations in one of NSP1, NSP2, NSP3, NSP6, NSP12, NSP13, NSP14, NSP15, NSP16, ORF3a, ORF6, or ORF8. Using an ISRE-driven luciferase assay, mutations in many proteins - especially NSP1 and NSP15 - increased the type I interferon response relative to the wild-type virus; NSP1 or NSP15 mutants also showed attenuated respiratory-tract replication in K18-hACE2 mice.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pbio.3003808-Redundant-and-distinct-mechanisms-suppre.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
Across two PLOS Mental Health cross-sectional studies of different populations — adolescents in Parbat District, Nepal (using GAD-7, PHQ-9, SBQ-R) and reproductive-aged women in Bangladesh (2022 Bangladesh Demographic and Health Survey) — what was the prevalence of depression among the Nepali adolescents, what proportion of the Bangladeshi women were diagnosed with both anxiety and depression, and what percentage of the Bangladeshi women had sought care from the formal sector?
Among the adolescents of Parbat District, Nepal, the prevalence of depression was 17.4% (53 of 304 adolescents; anxiety was 36.5% and suicidal ideation 7.6%). Among reproductive-aged women in Bangladesh (2022 BDHS), 7.6% reported ever being diagnosed with anxiety and/or depression, and when disaggregated, 3.62% were diagnosed with both conditions (3.39% anxiety only, 0.56% depression only). Furthermore, 11.85% of the Bangladeshi women had sought care from the formal sector.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmen.0000613-Prevalence-and-determinants-of-anxiety-d.pdf, p. 9 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmen.0000620-Who-gets-help-Analyzing-disparities-in-d.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two medical studies both report systolic blood pressure in mmHg but in completely different subjects. In the Vanderbilt postpartum randomized controlled trial of comprehensive blood pressure management, what were the two BP-control target thresholds compared (tight versus standard), and by how much did comprehensive management change systolic BP relative to clinician-directed management among participants randomized to tight control? Separately, in the stroke-prone spontaneously hypertensive rat (SHRSP) dietary-cholesterol study, what was the mean systolic blood pressure of the Chol group versus the control (Ctr) group, and what percentage reduction did that represent? Keep the human-trial target thresholds distinct from the rat-model absolute SBP values.
In the postpartum randomized controlled trial (Phelps et al., Comprehensive blood pressure management), the two BP-control targets compared were tight (<140/90 mmHg) versus standard (<150/100 mmHg) blood pressure control. Among participants randomized to tight control, comprehensive management reduced systolic BP compared with clinician management (−1.8 ± 16.5 vs. 5.7 ± 16.4 mmHg; adjusted beta coefficient, −9.23; 95% CI, −14.46 to −4.00). In the separate stroke-prone spontaneously hypertensive rat (SHRSP) study (Nishikata et al., Dietary cholesterol reduces blood pressure), following the 12-week feeding period the Chol group showed a significant decrease in systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 223 ± 6 mmHg compared with the Ctr (control) group of 240 ± 11 mmHg, representing a significant 9–10% reduction in systolic blood pressure. Thus the human postpartum trial's figures (<140/90 and <150/100 mmHg) are target thresholds for two human groups, whereas the 223 ± 6 versus 240 ± 11 mmHg figures are absolute measured SBP values in rats; the −1.8 vs +5.7 mmHg change applies only to the human tight-control arm and not to the rats.
PMC-PMC12872160-Comprehensive-blood-pressure-management.pdf, pp. 2, 3 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0342577-Dietary-cholesterol-reduces-blood-pressu.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · multi-source · hard
Across the two PLOS medical studies — the propensity-score matched cohort of adult orthotopic liver transplant (OLT) recipients receiving ultramassive transfusion (UMT, ≥20 L), and the analysis of the 2022 Gambia diethylene glycol (DEG) outbreak in children — which condition carried the higher case fatality, and what was the absolute number of deaths reported for that condition? Give the comparable mortality/case-fatality figures from each study.
The pediatric DEG-contaminated-medicines outbreak carried the far higher case fatality. In The Gambia's 2022 DEG outbreak, by October 5, 2022, 82 cases of acute kidney injury (AKI) were identified with 66 deaths, an 80.5% case fatality rate (the abstract states "82 children developed acute kidney injury (AKI) with 80% mortality"). By contrast, in the propensity-matched OLT cohort (n = 188; of 993 OLT recipients, 306 [30.8%] received ≥10 L perioperative fluid), ultramassive transfusion (≥20 L) was associated with significantly higher mortality than massive transfusion (10–<20 L), but the figures are relative percentages across horizons rather than a single case-fatality rate: 90-day mortality 11.7% (UMT) vs 0% (MT), 3-year 20.2% vs 7.4%, and overall 27.7% vs 14.9%. Thus the DEG-AKI condition's 80.5% case fatality (66 deaths) far exceeded the highest UMT figure (27.7% overall mortality). The absolute death count is given only for the DEG outbreak: 66 deaths.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0349795-Effects-of-massive-transfusion-10-20-lit.pdf, pp. 2, 6 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pgph.0005512-Protective-factors-against-acute-kidney.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
Two HIV-service costing studies in sub-Saharan Africa report per-unit costs in USD. In the KwaZulu-Natal, South Africa home-delivered antiretroviral therapy (ART) study, what did home-delivered ART cost (in 2022 USD) in the first year per client both within the pilot Deliver Health Study and when delivered at scale? In the Kenyan enhanced peer PrEP referral trial, what was the cost per peer referred to PrEP in the enhanced versus standard group? Combining both, which of these two strategies does the "almost eight times more" cost comparison refer to, and what are the two figures it compares?
The two studies report costs on different units (per client for ART; per peer for PrEP referral). In the home-delivered ART costing study in KwaZulu-Natal, South Africa, home-delivered ART cost (in 2022 USD) $794 in the first year per client within the pilot Deliver Health Study, and $267 in the first year per client when delivered at scale (12 home deliveries per day for five days per week). In the Kenyan enhanced peer PrEP referral trial, the cost per peer referred to PrEP was $23 USD in the enhanced group versus $3 USD in the standard group (and the cost per peer initiated on PrEP was $77 USD enhanced versus $7 USD standard). The "almost eight times more" cost comparison refers to the PrEP referral strategy, not ART: enhanced peer PrEP referral "cost almost eight times more per peer referred to PrEP than standard referral ($23 versus $3 USD)." It does not refer to the ART per-client figures.
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308277-Costs-of-home-delivered-antiretroviral-t.pdf, p. 2 · PMC-PMC13046272-Effect-of-enhanced-peer-PrEP-referral-wi.pdf, pp. 2, 10, 11 · multi-source · hard
Two PLOS medical papers each open with a global-burden framing of a neglected/vector-borne disease: one on Schistosoma japonicum-induced liver fibrosis (Tristetraprolin/m6A study) and one on dengue vaccine acceptability in Peru. Across these two papers, which disease is described with the quantitative burden figure of "more than 200 million people across 78 countries," and which disease is characterized as "the most rapidly advancing vector-borne disease globally, causing more human morbidity and mortality worldwide than any other arthropod-borne virus"? Attribute each descriptor to the correct disease.
The quantitative burden figure "affecting more than 200 million people across 78 countries" describes schistosomiasis (a neglected endemic and neglected tropical disease caused by Schistosoma parasites), per the Tristetraprolin/m6A liver-fibrosis paper (PLOS Pathogens, p2). The qualitative claim that it is "the most rapidly advancing vector-borne disease globally, causing more human morbidity and mortality worldwide than any other arthropod-borne virus" describes dengue, per the dengue vaccine acceptability paper (PLOS Neglected Tropical Diseases, p3). Thus schistosomiasis = "more than 200 million people across 78 countries," and dengue = "the most rapidly advancing vector-borne disease globally" causing more morbidity and mortality than any other arthropod-borne virus.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.ppat.1014007-Tristetraprolin-attenuates-schistosomias.pdf, p. 2 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0013572-Dengue-vaccine-acceptability-in-Peru-A-m.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
In Peru, which had the larger reported case burden in 2024 — dengue or leishmaniasis — and by how many cases did the larger exceed the smaller? Use the national 2024 reported-case figures, giving the difference between them.
Dengue had the far larger reported case burden in Peru in 2024. Peru reported 271,531 dengue cases in 2024, versus 4,812 cases of leishmaniasis reported in Peru in 2024. Dengue therefore exceeded leishmaniasis by 266,719 reported cases (271,531 − 4,812 = 266,719) — roughly 56 times as many cases.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0013572-Dengue-vaccine-acceptability-in-Peru-A-m.pdf, p. 3 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0014288-Phlebotomine-sand-fly-fauna-characteriza.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 PLOS studies both investigate Schistosoma japonicum but address its disease through entirely different routes. For each study, identify (a) the specific molecule(s) it focuses on and (b) the role that molecule plays against S. japonicum disease: Which study targets a therapeutic mechanism for S. japonicum-induced liver fibrosis, naming the regulator and the mRNA-stability pathway it acts through, and which study instead identifies circulating diagnostic biomarkers for detecting S. japonicum infection, naming the two biomarkers and the assay used?
The two studies address Schistosoma japonicum disease through different routes. The PLOS Pathogens study "Tristetraprolin attenuates schistosomiasis-induced liver fibrosis through m6A-mediated regulation of TGF-β1 mRNA stability" describes a therapeutic mechanism: tristetraprolin (TTP) is upregulated in the liver during S. japonicum-induced liver fibrosis and its overexpression markedly ameliorates this fibrotic pathology in vivo; TTP negatively regulates TGF-β1 mRNA stability by promoting N6-methyladenosine (m6A) RNA methylation, thereby inhibiting hepatic stellate cell (HSC) activation, and TTP enhances transcription of the WT1-associated protein (WTAP) gene through its interaction with SMAD2/3 (the anti-fibrotic function operates via the WTAP/m6A epitranscriptomic machinery). The PLOS Neglected Tropical Diseases study "Parasite exosomes-derived circulating sja-miR-61 and sja-miR-7-5p as Novel biomarkers for the detection of Schistosoma japonicum infection using TaqMan real-time PCR" instead identifies diagnostic biomarkers: parasite-exosome-derived circulating sja-miR-61 and sja-miR-7-5p detected by TaqMan probe-based quantitative reverse transcription PCR (TaqMan qRT-PCR); compared with healthy controls, infected patients exhibited significantly elevated serum levels of sja-miR-7-5p and sja-miR-61, with ROC area-under-the-curve (AUC) values of 0.8375 (sja-miR-7-5p) and 0.8750 (sja-miR-61), and a combined test achieving 95% sensitivity with 75% specificity. Thus the TTP/m6A/TGF-β1/WTAP study is the treatment-mechanism paper for liver fibrosis, while the exosome-derived sja-miR-61/sja-miR-7-5p TaqMan qRT-PCR study is the detection/diagnosis paper.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.ppat.1014007-Tristetraprolin-attenuates-schistosomias.pdf, p. 1 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0014368-Parasite-exosomes-derived-circulating-sj.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In this Argentina COVID-19 excess-mortality study, the authors report an "undercount ratio" comparing estimated excess deaths to reported COVID-19 deaths. For the full pandemic period (2020-2021), how many excess deaths and how many reported COVID-19 deaths were identified, and what undercount ratio resulted? Then, for the year 2021 alone, how many excess deaths and COVID-19 deaths were described, and what undercount ratio resulted? Explain how the relationship between excess and reported deaths flips between the two timeframes.
For the full period (2020-2021), 133,612 excess deaths were identified in Argentina, while 137,736 deaths are reported due to COVID-19, yielding an undercount ratio of 0.97 (suggesting a 3% underreporting of COVID-19 deaths, i.e., reported deaths slightly exceeded estimated excess deaths). For the year 2021 alone (annualized assessment), 91,125 excess deaths are described alongside 84,190 COVID-19 deaths, resulting in a higher undercount ratio of 1.08. The relationship flips: over the full period the ratio is below 1 (0.97), meaning reported COVID-19 deaths (137,736) were higher than estimated excess deaths (133,612), whereas in 2021 alone the ratio rises above 1 (1.08) because estimated excess deaths (91,125) exceeded reported COVID-19 deaths (84,190).
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308276-Assessing-Excess-Mortality-Patterns-in-A.pdf, pp. 9, 10 · multi-source · hard
In the fractional-order breast cancer modeling study, the optimal fractional-order parameter (alpha) and peak treatment-efficacy score differ by patient population. For YOUNG patients, what is the peak efficacy score, which treatment protocol achieves it, and at what alpha value? For ELDERLY (older) patients, what is the peak efficacy score, which protocol achieves it, and at what alpha value? Combine these two patient-specific peaks: what is the difference in peak efficacy between young and elderly patients, and what is the difference in the optimal alpha value between them?
Young patients achieve their maximum efficacy of 32.38 with Continuous therapy at alpha = 0.80. Elderly (older) patients achieve their best result of 31.82 with the Continuous protocol at alpha = 0.93. Combining these two patient-specific peaks: the efficacy difference is 32.38 - 31.82 = 0.56 (young higher), and the difference in optimal alpha is 0.93 - 0.80 = 0.13 (elderly requires the higher alpha, i.e., weaker memory effect). Thus although both groups are optimized with the Continuous protocol, younger patients reach a higher peak efficacy at a lower alpha (0.80) while older patients peak at a higher alpha (0.93) with lower efficacy.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0347160-Optimizing-breast-cancer-treatment-strat.pdf, pp. 1, 19, 24 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS Water study on socio-health vulnerabilities and diarrheal disease in rural Burkina Faso, three Burkina-Faso-specific facts are stated in different parts of the article. (1) From the Introduction, what were the 2023 rural vs urban figures for adequate access to drinking water, and the rural vs urban sanitation coverage rates? (2) Also from the Introduction, how many diarrheal-disease deaths were recorded in Burkina Faso, and what rank does diarrheal disease hold among causes of death in the country? (3) From the study's own household survey reported in the Abstract, what percentage of households reported at least one episode of diarrhea among their members in the 12 months prior to the survey, and how many households were surveyed?
In 2023, only 69.6% of the rural population had adequate access to drinking water, compared to 92% of the urban population; the rural sanitation coverage rate stands at only 22.7% compared to 40.5% in urban areas. In Burkina Faso alone, 11,572 deaths were recorded, making diarrheal diseases the 3rd leading cause of death in the country. In the study's own survey, 43% of households reported at least one episode of diarrhea among their members during the 12 months prior to the survey, out of 272 households surveyed in the municipality of Boussouma.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pwat.0000429-Socio-health-vulnerabilities-and-diarrhe.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS One study on serum peptidomic profiling in MMVD-associated cardiorenal syndrome in dogs, the abstract states that dogs were classified into five groups following ACVIM and IRIS consensus guidelines. Name those five groups, and then state how many proteins the nanoLC-MS/MS proteomic profiling found to be statistically significant (ANOVA p < 0.05), and how many of those significant proteins were common to both the MMVD C WAZ and CKD stage 2 groups.
The five groups were: Healthy, MMVD Stage B1, MMVD Stage C without azotemia (MMVD C WOAZ), MMVD Stage C with azotemia (MMVD C WAZ), and CKD IRIS Stage 2. Proteomic profiling identified 100 statistically significant proteins (ANOVA p < 0.05), of which six common proteins were present in both the MMVD C WAZ and CKD stage 2 groups (PEX14, GLRX2, CKMT2, SECISBP2, LRRCT domain-containing protein, and HINFP).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0348233-Serum-peptidomic-profiling-and-peptide-m.pdf, pp. 1, 11 · multi-source · hard
In this modeling study of dengue transmission in Bangladesh, the introduction reports Bangladesh's worst-recorded national dengue epidemic in 2023 alongside the following year's national totals. Using only the Bangladesh national figures (not the global figures stated in the same paragraph): (a) by how many did the reported national death toll fall from 2023 to 2024, and (b) starting from the printed 2023 case figure, how many fewer cases were reported nationally in 2024?
In 2023 Bangladesh faced its worst epidemic to date, with more than 321,000 cases and 1,700 deaths; in 2024 cases declined to 101,214 with 575 deaths. (a) National deaths fell by 1,125 (1,700 - 575 = 1,125). (b) Cases fell by more than 219,786 (more than 321,000 - 101,214 = more than 219,786).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0348077-Modeling-treatment-and-temperature-effec.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
In this observational case-control study's Introduction, diabetes mellitus is listed as a risk factor for both melioidosis and tuberculosis, but with different magnitudes. What fold-increased risk of melioidosis does diabetes mellitus carry, what fold-increased risk of developing TB is diabetes associated with, and how many times greater is the melioidosis risk multiplier than the TB risk multiplier?
For melioidosis, diabetes mellitus (DM) "carries a 12-fold increased risk." For tuberculosis, "DM is associated with up to a three-fold increased risk of developing TB." Therefore diabetes predisposes to melioidosis with a risk multiplier (12-fold) that is four times larger than its TB risk multiplier (up to 3-fold) — i.e., 12 / 3 = 4.
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308267-Diabetes-mellitus-is-associated-with-a-s.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS One study unraveling dimethylformamide-induced neutrophilic differentiation in HL-60 cells, HL-60 cells were differentiated using two reagents for five days. State the exact concentration used for each reagent, and then say which reagent's differentiated cells produced greater CD11b expression, which reagent's differentiated cells maintained higher proliferation rates and generated more NETs (with phorbol myristate acetate), and which pathway was the most significantly enriched in the cells from that latter reagent.
HL-60 cells were differentiated using 1.25% DMSO or 70 mM DMF for five days. DMSO-differentiated (DMSO-df-HL-60) cells produced greater CD11b expression. DMF-differentiated (DMF-df-HL-60) cells maintained higher proliferation rates than DMSO-df-HL-60 cells and generated more NETs than the DMSO-df-HL-60 cell model with phorbol myristate acetate. Neutrophil degranulation was the most significantly enriched pathway in DMF-df-HL-60 cells.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0348783-Unraveling-dimethylformamide-induced-neu.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the global revision of the nudibranch family Flabellinidae s.l., the paper reports a family-size figure for the whole group and separately describes the prior reclassification scheme it sets out to test. According to this paper, (a) how many described species does it state Flabellinidae s.l. contains as "a large cosmopolitan group," and (b) into how many genera and how many families did recent prior studies suggest reclassifying its 84 described species?
(a) The paper states that Flabellinidae s.l. is a large cosmopolitan group of nudibranchs with "more than 90 described species." (b) Recent prior studies had suggested reclassifying the 84 described species into 29 genera across 7 families.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0347759-Neither-lumpers-nor-splitters-A-global-r.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the Deliver Health Study costing analysis of home-delivered antiretroviral therapy (ART) refills in rural KwaZulu-Natal, South Africa, what was the first-year per-client cost (2022 USD) under the pilot Deliver Health Study versus when the same home delivery was modeled at scale, and what is the difference between these two first-year costs?
Within the pilot Deliver Health Study (an average of three deliveries per day for three days a week), home-delivered ART cost (in 2022 USD) $794 in the first year per client (after subtracting client fees). When delivered at scale (modeled at up to 12 home deliveries per day for five days per week in the rural setting), home-delivered ART cost $267 in the first year per client. The difference between the pilot first-year cost and the at-scale first-year cost is $794 - $267 = $527 per client.
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308277-Costs-of-home-delivered-antiretroviral-t.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
In this study of head and neck cancers in five East Asian countries, combine three findings for the period 1990 to 2023: (1) the change in China's all-ages incident cases of head and neck cancer between 1990 and 2023, (2) the corresponding change in China's all-ages DALYs over the same period (state whether each rose or fell), and (3) among the five countries, which one recorded the most pronounced decrease in age-standardized incidence rate (ASIR) per the Joinpoint regression, and its average annual percent change (AAPC). Give the specific verbatim figures for China's incidence and DALYs at both time points.
For China, all-ages incident cases of head and neck cancer rose from 94,277 (95% UI 73,728–118,251) in 1990 to 185,921 (95% UI 140,268–244,762) in 2023 — roughly a doubling. Over the same period, China's all-ages DALYs fell from 2,213,841 (95% UI 1,715,993–2,642,049) in 1990 to 2,053,652 (95% UI 1,726,426–2,458,513) in 2023. So China's absolute incident-case count nearly doubled while its total DALY burden actually declined. Among the five East Asian countries, Mongolia recorded the most pronounced decrease in ASIR per the Joinpoint regression analysis, with AAPC = −1.31 (95% CI: −1.46 to −1.18).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0349297-Burden-of-head-and-neck-cancers-in-five.pdf, pp. 6, 8 · multi-source · hard
In the 'Life Threads' approach pre-feasibility study of family members after traumatic brain injury, the recruitment Findings report a total number of expressions of interest received and, of those emails, a number later deemed to be phishing attempts; the study then enrolled a purposive sample that lost members to withdrawal, and among the retained final sample the abstract reports how many participants experienced tangible benefits and how many described being able to tell their story in a new way. Combine these to state: how many expressions of interest were received in total, how many of the scrutinised emails were deemed phishing attempts, the size of the purposive sample that began the study versus the final sample size after withdrawals, and within that final sample how many reported tangible benefits from engaging with the LTA and how many described being able to tell their story in a way not possible through traditional methods.
In total, 59 expressions of interest were received, and 13 of the scrutinised emails were deemed to be phishing attempts. A purposive sample of 20 family members began the study; three withdrew after the first focus group, leaving a final sample size of 17. Among the final sample, eleven participants reported tangible benefits from engaging with the LTA, and thirteen described being able to tell their story in a way not possible through traditional methods.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0349304-Supported-storytelling-through-the-Life.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · multi-source · hard
In this CMR lung water density (LWD) study of patients at risk of heart failure, what was the optimal ROC cut-off value of LWD used to detect at-risk patients (with its sensitivity and specificity), and separately, how many patients met the combined outcome of hospitalisation for heart failure or death over the median follow-up — and why did that limit the analysis?
The optimal cut-off for LWD was 27.6% to detect at-risk patients, with a sensitivity of 72% and a specificity of 73% (positive likelihood ratio 2.7, inverse negative likelihood ratio 2.6). Separately, only 2 patients met a combined outcome of hospitalisation for heart failure or death over a median follow-up time of 20 months, limiting the ability to perform any meaningful survival analysis. (Context: in patients at risk for heart failure, n=155, LWD was 30.4±5.0% versus 27.2±4.3% in healthy controls, n=15, p=0.02.)
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308269-Lung-water-density-is-increased-in-patie.pdf, pp. 1, 12 · multi-source · hard
In this preprint's Introduction, two intracellular-bacterial diseases are each given a global annual burden. Melioidosis (caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei) is stated to cause a certain number of cases and deaths globally each year, while tuberculosis is described with a 2021 figure for people infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis and the deaths that year. Combining only these two global death figures, what is the stated annual death count for melioidosis, what is the stated 2021 death count for TB, and how many times larger is the TB death count than the melioidosis death count (to one decimal place)?
Melioidosis is estimated to cause 89,000 deaths globally each year, and in 2021 TB caused 1.3 million (1,300,000) deaths. The TB death count is approximately 14.6 times larger than the melioidosis death count (1,300,000 / 89,000 ≈ 14.6).
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24308267-Diabetes-mellitus-is-associated-with-a-s.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS One study of the n-benzoyl-3-phenyl isoserine derivative (compound "N2") containing 1,2,3-triazole and quinoline rings, the same compound shows very different potency between blocking angiogenesis and killing cancer cells. (a) What IC50 value did N2 achieve in the rat aorta ring (RAR) anti-angiogenic assay, and what IC50 cutoff does the paper say signifies "considerable potency"? (b) What are N2's three anti-proliferative IC50 values, matched to the HUVEC endothelial, colon cancer (HCT116), and breast cancer (MCF7) cell lines, and what IC50 range does the paper say indicates only "moderate anti-cancer activity"? Using only the printed thresholds, state whether each result falls inside the potent/moderate band the paper defines.
(a) Anti-angiogenic activity: N2 had an IC50 of 18.91 μg/mL in the rat aorta ring (RAR) assay. The paper states "An IC50 value below 20 µg/mL signifies that the compound has considerable potency," so at 18.91 μg/mL N2 falls below the 20 μg/mL threshold and qualifies as considerably potent / a potential anti-angiogenic drug candidate. (b) Anti-proliferative activity: N2's IC50 values were 68.85 μg/mL against HUVEC (human umbilical vein endothelial) cells, 124.75 μg/mL against colon cancer (HCT116) cells, and 112.31 μg/mL against breast cancer (MCF7) cells. The paper states "An IC50 value between 100 and 300 indicates moderate anti-cancer activity." Therefore the two cancer lines (HCT116 at 124.75 and MCF7 at 112.31 μg/mL) both fall in the 100–300 "moderate anti-cancer activity" band, while the HUVEC value (68.85 μg/mL) sits below 100. Contrast: N2 is strongly anti-angiogenic (18.91 μg/mL, under the 20 μg/mL potency cutoff) but only moderately anti-proliferative against the cancer cell lines (124.75 and 112.31 μg/mL, in the 100–300 moderate band).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0344390-The-anti-angiogenic-and-anti-proliferati.pdf, pp. 1, 10, 11, 22, 23 · multi-source · hard
In the smart-wristband MCI monitoring study, the Introduction cites a study finding that older adults with a resting heart rate at or above a certain threshold had a specific percentage increase in dementia risk, and a systematic review reporting the highest medication-adherence rate observed among dementia patients. Separately, the Results section's statistical summary (Table 2) reports the study cohort's own measured Resting HR mean and maximum. State the cited resting-heart-rate threshold and the associated percentage increase in dementia risk, the highest observed medication-adherence rate from the systematic review, and the cohort's measured mean and maximum Resting HR. Did the cohort's mean Resting HR reach the cited risk threshold?
From the Introduction (p2): a study found that older adults with Resting High Rate (RHR) >= 80 had a 55% increased risk for developing dementia, and a recent systematic review of medication adherence studies of dementia patients reported the highest adherence rate observed at only 42% (with nonadherence correlated with higher hospitalization or mortality rates). From the Results statistical summary in Table 2 (p8), the cohort's Resting HR had a mean of 66.54 and a maximum of 78.18. The cohort's mean Resting HR of 66.54 did NOT reach the cited >= 80 threshold; even the maximum of 78.18 remained below 80.
medRxiv-10.1101_2024.05.31.24307874-Smart-Wristband-Monitoring-A-Caregiver-O.pdf, pp. 2, 8 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS study modeling climate-change-induced shifts in medically important snake distributions, how many deaths and disabilities does snakebite cause annually, what reduction in this health burden has WHO pledged and by what year, and how many medically important venomous snake species (of which WHO categories) did the study model at what global resolution — making it the first to model every such species?
Snakebite causes approximately 138,000 deaths and 400,000 disabilities annually, and WHO has pledged to reduce the resulting health burden by 50% by 2030. The study modeled all 508 most medically important snake species globally — including both category 1 and category 2 species — at a global 1km resolution, making it the first study to model every single medically important snake species (of categories 1 or 2) at the highest resolution to date.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0014030-Climate-change-induced-complex-shifts-in.pdf, pp. 2, 18 · multi-source · hard
Among the FDA-labeled drugs Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, Lynparza, and Suboxone, which carry a Boxed Warning, and what is each boxed warning about?
Ozempic and Zepbound carry a Boxed Warning for risk of thyroid C-cell tumors; Brenzavvy, Lynparza, and Suboxone have NO Boxed Warning (their labels open with Warnings and Precautions only).
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Among the FDA-labeled drugs Brenzavvy, Ozempic, Paxlovid, and Suboxone, which are administered orally/sublingually and which are injectable, per their dosage forms?
Brenzavvy - oral tablet; Ozempic - subcutaneous injection; Paxlovid - oral tablets; Suboxone - sublingual film. Only Ozempic is injectable.
FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · medium
What condition is each of these FDA-labeled drugs indicated to treat: Brenzavvy, Lynparza, Suboxone, and Paxlovid?
Brenzavvy - glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes; Lynparza - certain cancers (e.g., advanced ovarian and metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer); Suboxone - treatment of opioid dependence; Paxlovid - mild-to-moderate COVID-19 in high-risk adults.
FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · medium
What is the active ingredient (or ingredients) of each of these FDA-labeled drugs: Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, Paxlovid, and Suboxone?
Ozempic - semaglutide; Zepbound - tirzepatide; Brenzavvy - bexagliflozin; Paxlovid - nirmatrelvir plus ritonavir; Suboxone - buprenorphine plus naloxone. (Paxlovid and Suboxone are two-ingredient combinations.)
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 9 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 3 · FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 5 · FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 7 · multi-source · medium
What is the dosing frequency of each of these FDA-labeled drugs: Ozempic, Zepbound, Paxlovid, Lynparza, and Brenzavvy?
Ozempic - once weekly; Zepbound - once weekly; Paxlovid - twice daily for 5 days; Lynparza - twice daily; Brenzavvy - once daily.
FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Paxlovid.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · medium
Among the FDA-labeled drugs Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, Lynparza, and Suboxone, which is a federally controlled substance, and at what schedule?
Only Suboxone is a federally controlled substance (Schedule III - it contains buprenorphine). Ozempic, Zepbound, Brenzavvy, and Lynparza are not controlled substances.
FDA-Suboxone.pdf, p. 7 · FDA-Ozempic-semaglutide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Zepbound-tirzepatide.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Brenzavvy-bexagliflozin.pdf, p. 1 · FDA-Lynparza-olaparib.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · medium
What default hyperparameter values does the Adam paper recommend for stochastic optimization?
alpha (stepsize) = 0.001, beta1 = 0.9, beta2 = 0.999, and epsilon = 10^-8
arXiv-1412.6980-Adam.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
What mass did the ATLAS Collaboration report for the new particle observed in its 2012 Higgs boson search?
126.0 +/- 0.4 (stat) +/- 0.4 (sys) GeV
arXiv-1207.7214-ATLAS-Higgs.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the Adam paper, what default stepsize (alpha) is recommended for Adam, and what default stepsize is recommended for its infinity-norm variant AdaMax?
Adam: alpha = 0.001; AdaMax: alpha = 0.002
arXiv-1412.6980-Adam.pdf, pp. 2, 9 · multi-source · hard
Compare the statistical significance reported for two landmark physics discoveries: the ATLAS observation of the new Higgs-boson-like particle and the LIGO detection of gravitational waves (GW150914).
ATLAS reported 5.9 standard deviations (5.9 sigma) for the new particle; LIGO reported a significance greater than 5.1 sigma for GW150914
arXiv-1207.7214-ATLAS-Higgs.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-1602.03837-LIGO-GW150914.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
In the GPT-3 paper, how many layers (n_layers) does the GPT-3 13B model use, and what is its d_model?
40 layers, d_model = 5140
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · hard
What batch size (in tokens) and learning rate were used to train the full 175-billion-parameter GPT-3 model?
Batch size 3.2M tokens, learning rate 0.6 x 10^-4
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · hard
In the GPT-3 paper, for how many total tokens were all the models trained?
300 billion tokens
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · medium
After filtering, how large was the CommonCrawl dataset used to train GPT-3, and what was its size before filtering?
570GB after filtering, down from 45TB of compressed plaintext before filtering
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · medium
Across the eight model sizes in GPT-3's Table 2.1, how many attention heads (n_heads) does the smallest (125M) model have compared with the largest (175B) model?
12 heads for GPT-3 Small (125M) vs 96 heads for GPT-3 175B
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · multi-source · medium
In the analysis of the February 15, 1988 Atlanta-at-Chicago game, how many steals does the frame-by-frame film reconstruction credit to Michael Jordan, versus how many the official box score reported?
Film: 2 steals; official box score: 5 (a +3 phantom-steal discrepancy)
arXiv-2605.24056-Possession-Level-Player-Impact-in-the-Pr.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · hard
Of Atlanta's ten turnovers in the February 15, 1988 game, how many were dead-ball turnovers that cannot yield a steal under any circumstances?
3 dead-ball turnovers (the other 7 were live-ball)
arXiv-2605.24056-Possession-Level-Player-Impact-in-the-Pr.pdf, p. 14 · single fact · medium
For the February 15, 1988 game, what was the Chicago Bulls' film-reconstructed steal total versus the official box score, and by how many steals does the box score overstate it?
Film total 7 vs official box score 10 - the box score overstates by 3
arXiv-2605.24056-Possession-Level-Player-Impact-in-the-Pr.pdf, pp. 14, 15 · multi-source · medium
What was Michael Jordan's reported steal total for the 1987-88 NBA season as cited in this paper?
259 steals (3.16 per game, which led the league)
arXiv-2605.24056-Possession-Level-Player-Impact-in-the-Pr.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · medium
In the GPT-3 paper (Table 3.2), what accuracy did GPT-3 achieve on LAMBADA in the zero-shot setting versus the few-shot setting?
76% zero-shot and 86.4% few-shot on LAMBADA
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 12 · single fact · hard
According to the GPT-3 paper, by how much did GPT-3 175B advance the state of the art on LAMBADA in the few-shot setting?
By 18%
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 12 · single fact · medium
In the GPT-3 paper, what accuracy did the full 175B model achieve on 2-digit addition, 2-digit subtraction, 3-digit addition, and 3-digit subtraction?
100% on 2-digit addition, 98.9% on 2-digit subtraction, 80.2% on 3-digit addition, and 94.2% on 3-digit subtraction
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 22 · single fact · hard
According to the GPT-3 paper, how well can the second-largest model (13B parameters) solve 2-digit addition and subtraction, compared with the full 175B model?
The second-largest model solves 2-digit addition and subtraction only about half the time, whereas the full 175B model achieves 100% on 2-digit addition
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 22 · single fact · medium
In GPT-3's Table 2.1, how many of the eight models were trained with a batch size of 2M tokens, and which ones?
Two models - GPT-3 6.7B and GPT-3 13B - both used a 2M-token batch size
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 8 · multi-source · medium
In the GPT-3 paper (Table 3.3), what accuracy did GPT-3 achieve on TriviaQA in the zero-shot versus one-shot settings?
64.3% zero-shot and 68.0% one-shot on TriviaQA
arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 13 · single fact · hard
In the 'Deep Residual Learning' paper's Figure 1 (training and test error on CIFAR-10 for 20-layer vs 56-layer plain networks), which network has the higher TRAINING error, and what does that demonstrate about the cause of the degradation problem?
The 56-layer plain network has the higher training error (the left panel shows its training-error curve sitting above the 20-layer network's throughout training, and the right panel shows correspondingly higher test error). Because the deeper network's TRAINING error is higher - not just its test error - the degradation is not caused by overfitting.
arXiv-1512.03385-ResNet.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the Transformer architecture diagram (Figure 1 of 'Attention Is All You Need'), the decoder's first attention sub-layer differs from the encoder's self-attention. What is that decoder sub-layer called in the diagram?
It is the 'Masked Multi-Head Attention' sub-layer (the masking prevents each position from attending to subsequent positions).
arXiv-1706.03762-attention-is-all-you-need.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
In Figure 3 of the 'Visibility graphs can make money in finance' paper (cumulative profit of the VGRSI strategy over Jan 2024-end 2025), what total profit is reported for each of the three assets: the DJI30 index, the EUR/USD currency pair, and XAU/USD gold?
DJI30 index: total profit = $146,000; EUR/USD currency pair: total profit = $69,000; XAU/USD gold: total profit = $125,000.
arXiv-2605.01300-Visibility-graphs-can-make-money-in-fina.pdf, pp. 12, 13 · multi-source · hard
In the paper 'When Attention Collapses: Residual Evidence Modeling for Compositional Inference', what failure mode of attention-based models is identified under additive superposition, and what mechanism does the paper propose to resolve it?
The paper identifies 'slot collapse' - under additive superposition (where multiple components contribute to every observation), multiple attention slots converge to the same dominant component while weaker components remain unrepresented, because attention is memoryless with respect to already-explained evidence. The proposed fix is residual evidence modeling, instantiated via 'evidence depletion' (combining multiplicative depletion with an attention bias) added to sequential attention, which tracks the remaining explanatory capacity of the input.
arXiv-2605.02323-When-Attention-Collapses-Residual-Eviden.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the analysis of mixed radiation fields at the MoEDAL experiment, what detector system was used to characterize the radiation background, over what years was it operated, and what was MoEDAL's primary (passive) detector that this background analysis supports?
The Timepix hybrid silicon pixel detector network was used - the first and only active detector system installed and operated as part of MoEDAL, from 2013 to 2018. It provided real-time measurements of mixed radiation fields (fast neutrons, other hadrons, and highly ionizing particles) that form an experimental background for MoEDAL's passive Nuclear Track Detectors (NTDs), which search for tracks potentially produced by Dirac magnetic monopoles.
arXiv-2605.05936-Analysis-of-Mixed-Radiation-Fields-at-th.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
According to the paper on Kolmogorov-Arnold networks (KANs) and curvature penalties, what pathology do well-fitting KANs' learned activation functions exhibit, do standard regularization penalties prevent it, and what does the paper propose instead?
Well-fitting KANs tend to develop pathologically high-curvature, kink-like oscillations in their learned univariate activation functions, which makes them hard to interpret; standard regularization penalties do NOT prevent this. The paper derives a basis-agnostic curvature penalty and shows that penalized models maintain accuracy while achieving substantially smoother activations, and proves an upper bound on the full model's curvature relative to the curvature penalty.
arXiv-2605.02190-KANs-need-curvature-penalties-for-compos.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the 'vibe econometrics' paper, what three failure modes of AI-assisted causal analysis does the author identify, and what three conditions does the proposed 'Analysis Contract' impose before a causal claim is made?
The three failure modes are: method-data mismatch (AI bypasses expertise at execution), confidence laundering (AI amplifies the credibility of formatted output), and invisible forking (which spans both). The Analysis Contract imposes three conditions before a causal claim: a method-data contract, a data audit, and a pre-commitment statement defining what would count as a disconfirming result.
arXiv-2605.08071-Vibe-Econometrics-and-the-Analysis-Contr.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study on selectivity- and activity-aware catalyst descriptors for CO2 hydrogenation on alloy nanocatalysts, what trained the machine-learned force fields, and across what scale of materials, adsorption sites, and surfaces were adsorption energetics computed?
Universal machine-learned force fields trained on Open Catalyst Project data were used. Adsorption energetics were computed across 226 experimentally observed metals, binary alloys, and ternary alloys, encompassing 1.4 million adsorption sites on 2,626 crystallographically distinct surfaces, to identify highly active and methanol-selective facets (C1-product selectivity).
arXiv-2605.07714-Selectivity-and-Activity-Aware-Catalyst.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
In the machine-learning framework for testing general relativity with gravitational waves from binary black hole mergers, how many BBH events from the GWTC catalog were used as the astrophysical population, and by approximately what factor did using a response-function observable (rather than whitened waveforms) improve the CNN's classification sensitivity?
The framework used the source parameters of 173 binary-black-hole events from the GWTC catalog. Using a response-function-type observable as the CNN input improved classification sensitivity by a factor of approximately 33 compared with whitened waveforms.
arXiv-2605.02453-Testing-General-Relativity-Through-Gravi.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study analyzing EEG amplitudes of typical and ADHD children with nonadditive (Tsallis) entropies, what type of probability distribution describes the EEG amplitudes, and what did the study conclude about the complexity of ADHD subjects relative to typical subjects?
The EEG amplitude probability distributions are q-Gaussians (with (q, beta) the entropic index characterizing complexity and the inverse width). The study found that q tends to vary monotonically with beta for both groups - revealing critical behavior of the brain - and that ADHD subjects have higher complexity than typical subjects.
arXiv-2605.01629-Brain-criticality-through-nonadditive-en.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the muonic-atom x-ray spectroscopy measurement of chlorine charge radii, which chlorine isotopes were studied, what x-ray transitions were measured and to what precision, and why are muonic atoms well-suited for determining nuclear charge radii?
The study measured muonic 35Cl and 37Cl, extracting the 2,3,4p->1s x-ray energies with uncertainties reaching 18 ppm (using a large-scale germanium detector array and highly enriched samples of only a few tens of milligrams). Muonic atoms are well-suited because the negative muon's large wavefunction overlap with the nucleus makes the x-ray energies highly sensitive to the nuclear charge radius.
arXiv-2605.08413-Charge-radii-of-Cl-isotopes-from-x-ray-s.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the Bayesian leave-one-out cross-validation study comparing four models of the pulsar-timing-array gravitational-wave background, which model had the largest expected log predictive density, was its advantage decisive, and what was the clearest pairwise result?
The phenomenological environmental-hardening model had the largest expected log predictive density, but its advantage over the other models was not large compared with the estimated standard errors, so the data do not decisively prefer one model overall. The clearest pairwise result was within the ultralight-dark-matter (ULDM) framework: the simplified ULDM model outperformed the realistic implementation in all five (lowest) PTA frequency bins.
arXiv-2605.05679-Bayesian-leave-one-out-cross-validation.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the high-throughput full-f gyrokinetic study of the tokamak boundary (in a TCV-inspired geometry), which plasma-shaping parameters were scanned, and what was found about how triangularity's effect on confinement depends on heating power?
The study scanned triangularity, elongation, and heating power (across both the closed-flux-surface region and the open-field-line scrape-off layer). The impact of plasma shaping on confinement is strongly power-dependent: at low power, triangularity primarily controls the scrape-off-layer (SOL) ion temperature, whereas at high power it mostly affects the edge ion temperature gradient.
arXiv-2605.01117-High-throughput-full-f-gyrokinetics-of-t.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
According to the review on hadronic parity violation, what is the origin of parity violation in the Standard Model, and how can the strengths of the resulting parity-violating effective operators be computed?
In the Standard Model, parity violation results from the exchange of the weak W-plus/minus and Z0 gauge bosons between its fermions. The strengths of the different parity-violating effective operators that emerge at energies below the gauge-boson masses can be computed within perturbative quantum chromodynamics (QCD) to form an effective Hamiltonian (H_eff) at scales as low as the order of 1 GeV. Hadronic parity violation itself concerns the interplay of weak- and strong-interaction dynamics in hadrons and nuclei.
arXiv-2605.07826-Hadronic-parity-violation-successes-chal.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the paper on rolling-origin conformal prediction for time-series forecasting, against what does the method calibrate the conformal quantile, and what did empirical validation (on six real series and 93 M4 competition series) show versus full-history calibration?
The method calibrates the conformal quantile against the m most recent pseudo-out-of-sample forecast errors, adapting to serial dependence, volatility clustering, and distributional drift that invalidate classical conformal guarantees. Empirically, rolling-origin calibration outperformed full-history calibration in 86% of comparisons (median Winkler improvement 12.3%) and maintained coverage within +/-2% of the 90% target at short and medium horizons.
arXiv-2605.08422-Rolling-Origin-Conformal-Prediction-unde.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What does the method 'Bayes-THIS' extend and how, and what fundamental limitation of the Taylor-based hypergraph inference framework do the authors identify?
Bayes-THIS is a Bayesian extension of Taylor-based Hypergraph Inference using SINDy (THIS); it replaces fixed-threshold sparse regression with sparse Bayesian regression using automatic relevance determination, explicitly modeling residual variance and applying adaptive, term-wise coefficient shrinkage. The fundamental limitation: when higher-order interactions concentrate on nodes that lack lower-order connections, the Taylor expansion systematically inflates lower-order coefficient estimates, producing spurious edges indistinguishable from genuine lower-order interactions - a structural non-identifiability that neither THIS nor Bayes-THIS can resolve.
arXiv-2605.04218-Bayesian-hypergraph-inference-from-scarc.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What does the probabilistic denoising framework for spectroscopy extract in addition to the denoised signal, and on what data was it demonstrated (including the noise level)?
It simultaneously extracts denoised signals and element-wise predictive uncertainties from noisy data. It was demonstrated on three-dimensional angle-resolved photoemission spectroscopy (ARPES) data, reliably recovering the spectral features of a cuprate superconductor from Poisson-distributed noise with an average count of only 0.02 electrons per voxel; the predicted uncertainties were propagated into superconducting gap analyses to give quantitative parameters with meaningful error bars, and the approach was also extended to two-dimensional X-ray diffraction data.
arXiv-2605.07819-Probabilistic-denoising-for-reliable-sig.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
What sensing task does the time-reversed Young (TRY) interferometer perform with a fixed detector, and how does its advantage compare to ideal downstream matched-mode sorting?
The TRY interferometer enables simultaneous monitoring of beam tilt and focus (defocus) drift using a fixed detector - without a downstream wavefront camera, Shack-Hartmann array, or reconfigurable multiport analyzer. Two source-coded scalar channels recover essentially all of the local Fisher information. Compared with downstream direct intensity sensing, TRY provides first-order access to the mixed tilt-defocus task with fixed detection; but compared with ideal downstream matched-mode sorting, its advantage is architectural rather than fundamental.
arXiv-2605.02873-Fixed-detector-tilt-defocus-sensing-by-u.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of entropic reciprocity in time-reversed Young interferometry, what is the reciprocal invariant between the standard and time-reversed geometries, and what happens to the conditioned source-label entropy and the Fisher information near a destructive response?
Time-reversed Young interferometry reorganizes rather than reverses optical entropy: the marginal entropies in the standard and time-reversed geometries are generally unequal, and the reciprocal invariant is instead the mutual information between source and detector coordinates. Near a destructive response, the conditioned source-label entropy can decrease while the Fisher information for small phase, tilt, or defocus perturbations increases.
arXiv-2605.01052-Entropic-Reciprocity-in-Time-Reversed-Yo.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of polymer knots in thin films of varying thickness h, how does the knotting probability depend on film thickness, and what happens to the entanglement length and conformations near the walls?
The knotting probability exhibits a maximum at intermediate thicknesses, near the bulk radius of gyration (h is approximately Rg,bulk); it vanishes at small h and approaches the bulk value for large h. Close to the walls, the entanglement length increases monotonically and the chain conformations become flatter.
arXiv-2605.02644-Polymer-Knots-in-Thin-Films-Thickness-De.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the data-driven method for piecewise-linear systems, what quantity does it identify, and which two techniques does it combine to do so?
The method identifies the 'initial gap' of a piecewise-linear system - the point at which the system behavior switches - from data. It does so by discovering the governing equations using sparse regression and then calculating the gap based on the universal approximation theorem (approximating the piecewise-linear function by a finite sum of piecewise-linear functions, and computing the equivalent gap from the coefficients and switching points). It was validated experimentally on a simple mass-spring-hopping system, identifying the initial gap with high accuracy.
arXiv-2605.03817-Data-driven-Initial-Gap-Identification-o.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
Two recent high-dimensional change-point detection papers assume different asymptotic regimes. In the 'angular kernel' paper, what regime is the primary focus (and how do the dimension d and sequence length N behave), versus the 'ridge regularization' paper, where the dimension p and sample size n are related in what way?
The angular kernel paper (Ray Choudhury & Xie) primarily targets the high-dimensional, low-sample-size (HDLSS) regime, where the sequence length N is fixed while the ambient dimension d diverges. The ridge-regularization paper (Li & Xu) instead works in a regime where the dimension p is comparable to the sample size n, specifically p/n -> gamma in (0, infinity) (a proportional/comparable regime).
arXiv-2605.25855-High-Dimensional-Change-Point-Detection.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.24838-Adaptable-High-Dimensional-Change-Point.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
What real-data application does each of the two high-dimensional change-point papers use to illustrate its method: the dimension-averaged angular kernel (DAK) scan paper versus the ridge-regularized CUSUM paper, and what is the headline detected change in each?
The DAK angular-kernel paper applies its online scan to a solar-flare image sequence from the Solar Dynamics Observatory, with each frame vectorized into d = 67,744 pixels and a sliding window of length N0 = 15; it identifies three distinct event regions around frames t ~ 198, 217, and 227 (the main flare burst plus two weaker transients). The ridge-regularization paper applies its tests to a panel of S&P 500 daily log-returns (p = 92 stocks, n = 4,778 trading days, Jan 2007-Dec 2025) and the Ridge SC test rejects decisively, estimating the dominant change point at March 5, 2009, within four calendar days of the S&P 500 trough on March 9, 2009.
arXiv-2605.25855-High-Dimensional-Change-Point-Detection.pdf, p. 29 · arXiv-2605.24838-Adaptable-High-Dimensional-Change-Point.pdf, p. 24 · multi-source · hard
Compare the tuning requirements of the two high-dimensional change-point detectors: does the dimension-averaged angular kernel (DAK) scan require hyperparameter/bandwidth tuning, and what tuning parameter does the ridge-regularized CUSUM procedure introduce (and how is it chosen)?
The DAK angular-kernel scan is fully nonparametric, hyperparameter-free, and moment-agnostic - it requires no bandwidth selection, moment estimation, or distributional modeling (N0 and alpha are fixed design choices, not data-tuned). The ridge-regularized CUSUM procedure introduces a ridge regularization parameter lambda > 0 (the observations are scaled by (Sn + lambda*Ip)^{-1/2}); the paper develops a principled framework for selecting lambda by maximizing asymptotic power (in the S&P 500 application lambda/gamma_n = 0.1, giving lambda ~ 0.0019).
arXiv-2605.25855-High-Dimensional-Change-Point-Detection.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.24838-Adaptable-High-Dimensional-Change-Point.pdf, pp. 2, 23 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 papers extend conformal prediction to dependent time-series data where exchangeability fails. Under what mixing/dependence conditions does the rolling-origin conformal prediction paper establish its coverage guarantees, versus the Markov Distributional Conformal Prediction (MDCP) paper?
The rolling-origin paper (Halkiewicz) establishes its coverage-error decomposition under Holder-beta local stationarity together with (uniform) alpha-mixing weak dependence. The MDCP paper (Dai, Wu & Politis) instead works with a strictly stationary Markov process and proves a non-asymptotic bound on the unconditional coverage rate under a beta-mixing condition (and shows conditional validity also holds when the process is L_p-m-approximable rather than mixing).
arXiv-2605.08422-Rolling-Origin-Conformal-Prediction-unde.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.24848-Distributional-Conformal-Prediction-for.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
How is each of the two time-series conformal-prediction methods empirically validated: what data does the rolling-origin conformal paper use (and its headline result versus full-history calibration), versus the real-data study used by the Markov Distributional Conformal Prediction (MDCP) paper?
The rolling-origin paper validates on six real series plus 93 M4-competition series, finding that rolling-origin calibration outperforms full-history calibration in 86% of comparisons (median Winkler-score improvement 12.3%) and keeps coverage within +/-2% of the 90% target at short and medium horizons. The MDCP paper's real-data study uses weekly S&P 500 price-index log-returns from 1 January 1988 to 31 December 1997 (521 observations, treated as a Markov(1) series), comparing prediction-interval coverage and length across MF, PMF, MDCP and PMDCP at nominal 90% and 95% coverage.
arXiv-2605.08422-Rolling-Origin-Conformal-Prediction-unde.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.24848-Distributional-Conformal-Prediction-for.pdf, p. 28 · multi-source · hard
In the CMS study of Z -> 4l decays, what is the measured inclusive branching fraction B(Z -> 4l), what are the three individual channel branching fractions (4mu, 2mu2e, 4e), and why is the inclusive value not simply the sum of the three?
The measured inclusive branching fraction is B(Z -> 4l) = (4.67 +/- 0.11 (stat) +/- 0.10 (syst)) x 10^-6. The individual observed channel values (Table 5) are B(Z -> 4mu) = 1.25 x 10^-6, B(Z -> 2mu2e) = 2.17 x 10^-6, and B(Z -> 4e) = 1.16 x 10^-6 (in units of 10^-6). The inclusive value is not the simple sum of the three because the combined 4l value comes from the SM fit, whereas the individual-channel values are obtained from the (differently parameterized) BSM fit.
arXiv-2605.25158-Studies-of-Z-to-4-ell-decays-in-proton-p.pdf, pp. 1, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the CMS Z -> 4l study, what integrated luminosities were collected at sqrt(s) = 8 TeV and at 13 TeV, and what partial decay width Gamma(Z -> 4l) do the authors derive (using the world-average total Z width)?
The analysis uses an integrated luminosity of 19.7 fb^-1 at sqrt(s) = 8 TeV and 138 fb^-1 at 13 TeV. The derived partial width is Gamma(Z -> 4l) = B(Z -> 4l) * Gamma_Z = 12.83 +/- 0.41 keV, computed using the fitted B(Z -> 4l) and the world-average total width Gamma_Z = 2.4955 +/- 0.0023 GeV.
arXiv-2605.25158-Studies-of-Z-to-4-ell-decays-in-proton-p.pdf, pp. 1, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the BonFIRE/CampFIRE early-Universe FIRE-3 simulation suite, what comoving box volume and baryonic mass resolution does the parent BonFIRE run have, how does the highest-resolution CampFIRE-800 run compare (baryonic mass resolution and fraction of BonFIRE's volume), and roughly how many CPU hours did each cost?
BonFIRE models a (41.2 cMpc)^3 cosmological volume with 2 x 2048^3 particles at a baryonic mass resolution m_baryon ~ 51,000 M_sun (DM ~ 273,000 M_sun), run from z = 30 to z = 9 at a cost of approximately 5.25 million CPU hours. CampFIRE-800 is a zoom-in of a (5 cMpc)^3 subregion - only about 0.2% of the BonFIRE volume - at much higher resolution m_baryon ~ 800 M_sun, costing approximately 860,000 CPU hours to run to z = 9. (The intermediate CampFIRE-6k run has m_baryon ~ 6,300 M_sun and cost ~365,000 CPU hours.)
arXiv-2605.24104-Resolving-galaxy-formation-in-the-early.pdf, pp. 4, 5 · multi-source · hard
In the 'Bitcoin's Power Law: Weak Structure, Strong Forecasts' paper, what power-law exponent has been claimed for Bitcoin's price over 2010-2026, what exponent and goodness-of-fit does the authors' own log-log regression find (and over how many daily observations), and what is the paper's central 'weak structure, strong forecasts' conclusion about the power law as a structural model versus as a forecaster?
Bitcoin's price has been described as following a power law P ~ t^beta with claimed exponent beta-hat ~ 5.7 over 2010-2026. The authors' own OLS log-log fit over daily prices from 18 August 2010 to 25 March 2026 (n = 5,699 observations) gives an exponent alpha-hat = 5.64 with R^2 = 0.96. The conclusion ('weak structure, strong forecasts') is that the power law is a poor structural description - the distributional power law is rejected (lognormal preferred decisively) and the time-domain exponent is not specification-robust - yet as a forecaster the simple power law dominates 12-24 month horizons against every standard baseline at p < 0.05.
arXiv-2605.21316-Bitcoin-s-Power-Law-Weak-Structure-Stron.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
In the ridge-regularized change-point paper's S&P 500 application, where does the single dominant change point (the Ridge SC test) fall, and what additional change points does the recursive Ridge MC procedure localize - in particular, which dates does it associate with the COVID-19 crash?
The Ridge SC (single change-point) test places the dominant change point at March 5, 2009 - within four calendar days of the S&P 500's March 9, 2009 trough at the bottom of the Great Recession. After rejecting with the Ridge MC test, the recursive procedure localizes additional economically interpretable change points: January 14, 2008 (onset of the subprime crisis), February 10, 2020 (the eve of the COVID-19 crash, just before the Feb 19, 2020 peak and the >30% drop), April 17, 2020 (the bottom of the COVID crash / start of recovery), and December 31, 2021 (end of the post-COVID recovery regime). The COVID-19 crash is thus bracketed by the Feb 10, 2020 and April 17, 2020 change points.
arXiv-2605.24838-Adaptable-High-Dimensional-Change-Point.pdf, pp. 24, 25 · multi-source · hard
Two scientific papers each describe a principled uncertainty-quantification framework but in different fields, and each frames a distinct trade-off. In the quantum-metrology review (arXiv-2605.21702), what specific advantage does the Bayesian technique offer over the frequentist technique, and on what grounds is the frequentist technique called "conceptually objective"? Separately, in the conformal-prediction paper (arXiv-2605.25852), what framework does the abstract describe as a tool for uncertainty quantification, and what coverage trade-off does the paper state must hold for split conformal prediction under marginal validity? Give the answer for each framework.
In the quantum-metrology review (arXiv-2605.21702, p7), the Bayesian technique "improves performance in small-sample circumstances and increases modeling flexibility by combining prior knowledge with observed data to generate a complete probabilistic description via the posterior distribution," which is its advantage over the frequentist technique; the frequentist technique is called "conceptually objective" because "it is entirely data-driven and does not rely on prior assumptions on distribution of the parameters." In the conformal-prediction paper (arXiv-2605.25852, p1), the framework described as a tool for uncertainty quantification is Conformal Prediction (CP), which "has proven to be a powerful framework for uncertainty quantification"; the stated coverage trade-off (p11) is that although split conformal prediction provides global marginal validity, "under-coverage on some regions of X must be compensated by over-coverage elsewhere, and conversely."
arXiv-2605.21702-Journey-in-quantum-metrology-and-sensing.pdf, p. 7 · arXiv-2605.25852-A-Post-Processing-Conformal-Prediction-A.pdf, pp. 1, 11 · multi-source · hard
Two May 2026 stat.ME conformal-prediction preprints both center on "coverage" and use the probability integral transform, yet they prove guarantees of fundamentally different types. One paper, on a post-processing approach via pivotal scores, says what kind of bounds it derives on the "conditional coverage gap" and names the distributional property it shows conditional coverage is equivalent to; it also states what its PIT correction is composed with and what that correction "completely decouples." The other paper, which extends distributional conformal prediction to Markov processes, states the type of error bound it provides and for which coverage rate (under a β-mixing condition), and states that the conditional coverage rate of its prediction intervals only "converges to the nominal level asymptotically." For each paper, give (a) the validity notion its finite-sample/non-asymptotic result targets, and (b) the distributional mechanism it relies on.
The two papers target different validity notions. (1) "A Post-Processing Conformal Prediction Approach for Conditional Coverage via Pivotal Scores" (arXiv-2605.25852) derives "general Kolmogorov–Smirnov bounds on the conditional coverage gap, showing the equivalence between conditional coverage and distributional invariance of the nonconformity score with respect to the features." Its distributional mechanism is the PIT correction: it composes "the base score with the nondecreasing conditional CDF of the induced score," a post-processing transformation that "completely decouples the initial predictive modeling task from that of achieving conditional coverage." So its finite-sample (deterministic and high-probability) bounds target the CONDITIONAL coverage gap. (2) "Distributional Conformal Prediction for Markov Processes" (arXiv-2605.24848) introduces Markov Distributional Conformal Prediction (MDCP) and provides "a non-asymptotic error bound of MDCPs unconditional coverage rate under a β-mixing condition"; its conditional guarantee is weaker — "the conditional coverage rate of MDCP PIs converges to the nominal level asymptotically." Its distributional mechanism "exploits the probability integral transform based on estimated transition distribution functions to transform the Markov data to an i.i.d. dataset." So its non-asymptotic result targets the UNCONDITIONAL coverage rate, with conditional validity only asymptotic. In short: 25852 = finite-sample Kolmogorov–Smirnov bounds on the conditional coverage gap via PIT-corrected pivotal scores; 24848 = non-asymptotic bound on the unconditional coverage rate (conditional coverage only asymptotic) via the PIT on estimated transition distribution functions.
arXiv-2605.25852-A-Post-Processing-Conformal-Prediction-A.pdf, pp. 2, 8 · arXiv-2605.24848-Distributional-Conformal-Prediction-for.pdf, pp. 1, 4 · multi-source · hard
Two SMEFT/new-physics flavor papers both probe CP-violating observables in B decays via complex Wilson coefficients, but in different quark transitions. One paper performs a combined fit to b->s observables (allowing complex dimension-six Wilson coefficients) and investigates the impact of those complex Wilson coefficients on CP asymmetries in a specific muonic B decay channel; the other analyzes b->c(bar-u)q transitions and studies a direct CP asymmetry (A_CP) in a charged-B decay to a D-meson plus pion, together with the GLW observables R_CP+/- and A_CP+/-. For EACH paper, name (a) the quark transition it covers and (b) the specific CP-asymmetry observable/decay channel it studies.
The b->s paper (arXiv-2605.23759) performs "a combined fit to b ->s (mu+mu-, nu-bar nu) observables, allowing the relevant dimension-six Wilson coefficients to be complex," and investigates "the impact of complex Wilson coefficients on CP asymmetries in B ->K(*)mu+mu- decays" (finding percent-level effects in specific q^2 regions). The b->c(bar-u)q paper (arXiv-2605.22088) covers "b ->c(bar-u)q (q = d, s) transitions" and studies the "direct CP asymmetry (ACP) in B- ->D0 pi- decays" together with the GLW observables "R_CP+/- and A_CP+/-" (Eqs. 26-29). Pairing: 23759 = b->s (mu+mu-, nu-bar nu), CP asymmetries in B->K(*)mu+mu- from complex Wilson coefficients; 22088 = b->c(bar-u)q, direct CP asymmetry ACP in B- -> D0 pi- and GLW observables R_CP+/- / A_CP+/-.
arXiv-2605.23759-Correlated-b-to-s-and-s-to-d-Rare-Semile.pdf, pp. 1, 11 · arXiv-2605.22088-b-to-c-bar-u-q-decay-and-CP-violating-ob.pdf, pp. 1, 10, 11 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 gravitational-wave papers both build on the LIGO-Virgo-KAGRA binary black hole (BBH) catalog but use different catalog releases for different goals. In the convolutional-neural-network paper on testing general relativity, how many BBH events make up the realistic astrophysical population used, and from which specific GWTC catalogs are those events drawn? Separately, in the reversible-jump MCMC paper, which numbered Gravitational Wave Transient Catalog release does it analyze, what does the paper say that release did to the catalog size relative to its predecessor, and how many distinct subpopulations does it robustly identify from that data?
The general-relativity-testing CNN paper (arXiv 2605.02453) uses the source parameters of 173 BBH events from the GWTC catalog as a realistic astrophysical population; those 173 BBH events are catalogued in GWTC-1, GWTC-2, and GWTC-3. The reversible-jump MCMC paper (arXiv 2605.25980) instead analyzes the 4th Gravitational Wave Transient Catalog (GWTC-4), which "has more than doubled the catalog size compared to its predecessor," and applying its framework to the GWTC-4 data it robustly identifies three subpopulations (at m1 ≈ 10 M⊙ consistent with isolated binary evolution, a broad peak at m1 ∼ 30 M⊙ consistent with dynamical assembly, and a high-spin continuum extending to high masses). So: 173 events from GWTC-1/2/3 for the GR test, versus GWTC-4 (more than doubling the catalog) yielding three subpopulations.
arXiv-2605.02453-Testing-General-Relativity-Through-Gravi.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · arXiv-2605.25980-Reversible-jump-MCMC-reveals-binary-blac.pdf, pp. 2, 3 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 cosmology preprints both attempt to resolve the same Hubble tension — shifting the inferred Hubble constant from the CMB value of about 67 km/s/Mpc up toward the locally measured value of about 73 km/s/Mpc — but invoke different early-universe physics. In the Early Dark Energy paper (arXiv-2605.26116), by what approximate percentage must the sound horizon be reduced to accommodate this H0 shift, and what is the stated mechanism (what does EDE do to the pre-recombination expansion)? Separately, in the interacting Dark Radiation paper (arXiv-2605.24089), what is the fitted (reduced) sound horizon scale rd in Mpc obtained for the CMB+BAO+Pantheon++SH0ES combination, and what is the stated mechanism by which DR reduces the sound horizon?
Early Dark Energy paper (arXiv-2605.26116, p7): shifting H0 from the CMB-inferred value H0 ~67 km/s/Mpc to the locally measured H0 ~73 km/s/Mpc corresponds to a relative shift of order delta H0/H0 ~0.08, which "translates into a required reduction of the sound horizon at the level of approximately 8%." Its mechanism: "EDE alleviates the Hubble tension by reducing the sound horizon at recombination" — the EDE component becomes dynamically relevant near matter–radiation equality, "increasing H(z) relative to its ΛCDM value over the relevant pre-recombination interval and thereby reducing rs(z⋆)." Dark Radiation paper (arXiv-2605.24089, p1): for the CMB+BAO+Pantheon++SH0ES combination it finds "a reduced sound horizon scale, rd = 141.8+1.3−1.2 Mpc" (with Ntot = 3.63+0.13−0.15 and YHe = 0.2530 ± 0.0017). Its mechanism: the alleviation "is achieved through an enhanced early-time expansion rate, which reduces the sound horizon scale." So both shrink the sound horizon, but EDE does so by adding an EDE energy component that raises H(z) only over the pre-recombination interval (~8% reduction in rs), whereas DR does so by raising the early-time expansion rate via extra relativistic content, yielding fitted rd = 141.8 Mpc.
arXiv-2605.26116-Unifying-Early-and-Late-Dark-Energy-Dyna.pdf, p. 7 · arXiv-2605.24089-Exploring-the-Dark-Sector-Interacting-Ra.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 hep-ph arXiv papers both invoke unitarity-triangle / mixing-matrix concepts of the Standard Model, but in different sectors. In the paper that proposes "Testing the unitarity of the lepton mixing matrix, in a manner analogous to the unitarity tests of the CKM matrix in the quark sector," (a) which two new quantities are introduced (extracted from the energy dependence of the neutrino oscillation probabilities) such that their non-vanishing "immediately indicates the unitarity violation," and (b) what concrete model is used as the example to test unitarity? Then, in the OTHER paper, which works in the quark sector on b -> c-bar u q transitions, (c) which angle of the unitarity triangle is among the analyzed observables, and (d) what are the two NP-scenario labels under which the complex Wilson coefficients are constrained at the 1-sigma and 2-sigma levels?
Lepton-sector paper (arXiv-2605.20859): (a) the two new quantities are tilde-xi (xi-tilde) and tilde-eta (eta-tilde), "which can be extracted from the energy dependence of the neutrino oscillation probabilities," and whose "non-vanishing values ... immediately indicates the unitarity violation"; (b) the concrete example is "a four-generation model" (a 4x4 unitary model with an eV-scale sterile neutrino). Quark-sector paper (arXiv-2605.22088): (c) the analyzed observable from the unitarity triangle is "gamma/phi3, one of the angles in the unitarity triangle" (the CKM angle gamma); (d) the complex Wilson coefficients are constrained "at 1-sigma and 2-sigma levels under color-singlet and color-rearranged scenarios." Thus 20859 supplies the lepton-mixing (PMNS) unitarity test via tilde-xi/tilde-eta in a four-generation model, while 22088 supplies the actual quark-sector CKM observable (the angle gamma/phi3) from b -> c-bar u q (B -> DK) CP-conjugate transitions.
arXiv-2605.20859-Impact-of-matter-effects-on-the-unitarit.pdf, pp. 1, 3, 7 · arXiv-2605.22088-b-to-c-bar-u-q-decay-and-CP-violating-ob.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two distinct 2026 benchmark papers each evaluate foundation models in a different scientific domain. For the benchmark that asks an agent to discover the laws of motion of simulated worlds with non-canonical physics, how many frontier and open-source LLMs are benchmarked, and how many such worlds are constructed? Separately, for the benchmark designed for nucleotide foundation models (NFMs) on viral genomics, how many NFMs are evaluated, how many total baselines (methods) does that comprise, and across how many scenarios? Give the model/world count for the physics benchmark and the model/baseline/scenario counts for the viral genomics benchmark.
The physics-discovery benchmark (DiscoverPhysics) benchmarks 11 frontier and open-source LLMs and constructs 22 worlds (governed by non-canonical physics), finding the strongest agents pass only about half of the worlds. The viral genomics benchmark (ViroBench) evaluates 66 NFMs, totaling 70 baselines (66 NFMs and 4 conventional baselines), across 18 scenarios spanning 4 task types. So: physics = 11 LLMs / 22 worlds; viral genomics = 66 NFMs / 70 baselines / 18 scenarios.
arXiv-2605.26087-DiscoverPhysics-Benchmarking-LLMs-for-Ou.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · arXiv-2605.25388-ViroBench-Benchmarking-Nucleotide-Founda.pdf, pp. 1, 3, 4 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 hep papers both study QCD physics in proton-proton collisions but at very different energy scopes. In the CMS search for low-mass spin-zero resonances decaying to tau pairs in the mass range between 20 and 60 GeV, at what single center-of-mass energy were the proton-proton collisions recorded, and what integrated luminosity (collected in 2022-2023) does that dataset correspond to? Separately, in the NNLO inclusive charm and bottom quark-pair production survey, over what full range of center-of-mass energies are the cross sections studied, including the highest energy reached in ultrahigh-energy cosmic-proton collisions? Give the energy/luminosity figures for each paper.
The CMS search (arXiv-2605.25103) used proton-proton collision data at a single center-of-mass energy of sqrt(s) = 13.6 TeV, corresponding to an integrated luminosity of 61.9 fb-1 recorded by CMS in 2022-2023, for a spin-zero boson search in the mass range between 20 and 60 GeV. The charm/bottom NNLO survey (arXiv-2605.16019) studies cross sections over a wide range of center-of-mass energies, sqrt(s) ~ 10 GeV-400 TeV: it compiles existing data over sqrt(s) ~ 10 GeV-13 TeV, extends up to the sqrt(s) ~ 100 TeV regime foreseen at the CERN Future Circular Collider (FCC), and even sqrt(s) ~ 400 TeV reached in ultrahigh-energy collisions of cosmic protons with the upper atmosphere. So: 25103 = a single 13.6 TeV / 61.9 fb-1 CMS dataset, whereas 16019 = a broad 10 GeV-400 TeV survey (no single luminosity), with its 13 TeV being only one point in that range.
arXiv-2605.25103-Search-for-low-mass-resonances-decaying.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · arXiv-2605.16019-Inclusive-charm-and-bottom-quark-pair-pr.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · multi-source · hard
Two quantum-physics papers each quantify estimation precision on a different axis. In the quantum-metrology review (arXiv-2605.21702), for a general probe state evolving under a Hamiltonian the quantum Fisher information may scale as F(θ) ~ N^µ: which value of the scaling exponent µ corresponds to the standard quantum limit (SQL), which value reaches the Heisenberg limit (HL), and what is the regime that surpasses the HL informally called? Separately, in the Fermi-Dirac-machines paper (arXiv-2605.24386), in the continuous-variable case where the random variable is no longer guaranteed to take values in a bounded interval, what is the sample-complexity (in σ, ε, δ) that the median-of-means estimator requires to estimate the mean, and why is this described as a dramatic improvement over using the sample mean under the Chebyshev inequality? Give both the metrology scaling exponents and the median-of-means sample-complexity scaling.
From arXiv-2605.21702 (p8): for a general probe state evolving under a Hamiltonian, the QFI may scale as F(θ) ~ N^µ; the standard quantum limit (SQL) "corresponds to µ = 1," while "when µ > 1, the system exhibits a quantum advantage," "when µ ∼2, the scaling reaches the Heisenberg limit (HL)," and "certain quantum systems can surpass the HL ... often informally referred to as the super-Heisenberg limit," giving an even higher quantum advantage. From arXiv-2605.24386 (p18): in the continuous-variable case the random variable is no longer guaranteed to take values in a bounded interval; as a consequence of the Chebyshev inequality, estimating the mean of a random variable X with finite variance σ^2 to accuracy ε and failure probability δ with the sample mean "requires n ≥ O((σ/ε)^2 (1/δ)) samples," whose dependence on δ is "less favorable" than the Hoeffding guarantee. The median-of-means estimator "essentially restores the favorable dependence of the sample complexity on δ" and "requires only O((σ/ε)^2 ln(1/δ)) samples," a "dramatic improvement in its dependence on δ." Aggregated: 21702 measures precision via the probe-number QFI scaling exponent (SQL µ=1, HL µ~2, super-Heisenberg beyond HL), whereas 24386 measures precision via sample complexity in (σ, ε, δ), where median-of-means gives O((σ/ε)^2 ln(1/δ)) versus the sample mean's O((σ/ε)^2 (1/δ)).
arXiv-2605.21702-Journey-in-quantum-metrology-and-sensing.pdf, p. 8 · arXiv-2605.24386-Fermi-Dirac-machines-as-quantizations-of.pdf, p. 18 · multi-source · hard
Two May-2026 papers (both "Prepared for submission to JHEP") constrain physics beyond the Standard Model but with very different inferential framings. In the SMEFT paper "Exploring the SMEFT landscape: Bayesian Model Selection for indirect discovery," at what two orders in the Wilson coefficients is the analysis carried out, what renormalisation feature is "systematically included," and what does the analysis find regarding departures from the SM? Then, in the companion-era CONUS paper "New constraints on physics within and beyond the standard model from the latest CONUS datasets," to what value is the NSI-related "scale of new physics" improved (the value quoted in its abstract / conclusion), and what does that paper say its NSI coupling limits "can be directly translated into"? Combine both to state which paper supplies the Bayesian model-averaging machinery over dimension-six Wilson coefficients and which supplies the numerical new-physics-scale bound.
The SMEFT paper (arXiv-2605.21594, Mantani, "Exploring the SMEFT landscape: Bayesian Model Selection for indirect discovery") applies Bayesian model selection over operator subsets "at both linear and quadratic order in the Wilson coefficients, with one-loop renormalisation group evolution systematically included," and "finds no statistically significant evidence for any departure from the SM"; it also treats the matching scale µ0 as "a continuous parameter of inference alongside the Wilson coefficients and the discrete operator content." That paper supplies the Bayesian Model Average machinery over the dimension-six Wilson coefficients but reports no numerical new-physics-scale bound. The CONUS paper (arXiv-2605.22815, CONUS Collaboration) constrains beyond-SM physics with CEνNS reactor-antineutrino data: its limits on the new (NSI) couplings "can be directly translated into bounds on the energy scale ΛNP where the new physics is expected to become dynamical: ΛNP ∼ mW/√ϵ," and the NSI-related "scale of new physics related to NSIs is improved to ΛNSI=145 GeV" (stated in the conclusion as "constraints the corresponding new physics scale to be above ΛNSI > 145 GeV"). So the numerical new-physics-scale bound (ΛNSI > 145 GeV) comes only from the CONUS paper, while the Bayesian model-averaging over Wilson coefficients (linear+quadratic order, one-loop RGE) comes only from the SMEFT paper.
arXiv-2605.21594-Exploring-the-SMEFT-landscape-Bayesian-M.pdf, pp. 1, 7, 11 · arXiv-2605.22815-New-constraints-on-physics-within-and-be.pdf, pp. 13, 25 · multi-source · hard
Two scientific_technical papers both invoke DESI baryon acoustic oscillation (BAO) measurements and both resolve the Hubble tension by reducing the cosmological sound horizon, but they report two DIFFERENT sound-horizon quantities. In "arXiv-2605.24089-Exploring-the-Dark-Sector-Interacting-Ra.pdf", what single fitted value of the reduced sound horizon scale rd (with its uncertainties and units) is obtained when CMB, BAO, Pantheon+ and SH0ES data are combined, and which DESI BAO dataset is used? Separately, in "arXiv-2605.26116-Unifying-Early-and-Late-Dark-Energy-Dyna.pdf", which works with the sound horizon at recombination rs(z*) rather than a fitted rd, what fraction (percent) of the total sound horizon is reported to be sourced by redshifts z >~ 1.7 x 10^4, and what effective Early Dark Energy contribution Omega_eff_EDE does a 5-10% sound-horizon reduction correspond to?
From arXiv-2605.24089 (p1): when CMB, BAO, Pantheon+ and SH0ES data are considered, the fitted reduced sound horizon scale is rd = 141.8 +1.3 -1.2 Mpc, and the analysis uses DESI DR2 BAO measurements. From arXiv-2605.26116 (p7, p8): working instead with the sound horizon at recombination rs(z*) and motivated by recent DESI baryon acoustic oscillation (BAO) measurements, only ~10% of the total sound horizon is sourced by redshifts z >~ 1.7 x 10^4 (and only about 5% by z >~ 3.5 x 10^4), and a sound-horizon reduction of delta r_s/r_s ~ 5-10% corresponds to an effective EDE contribution of order Omega_eff_EDE ~ 0.1-0.2. So 24089 reports a single fitted comoving value (rd = 141.8 Mpc) while 26116 reports a fractional rs(z*) accumulation (10% from z >~ 1.7e4) requiring Omega_eff_EDE ~ 0.1-0.2.
arXiv-2605.24089-Exploring-the-Dark-Sector-Interacting-Ra.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.26116-Unifying-Early-and-Late-Dark-Energy-Dyna.pdf, pp. 7, 8 · multi-source · hard
In the α-scattering study of the first excited (0+₂) state of ⁴He performed at the INFN-LNS K800 Superconducting Cyclotron in Catania, what proton-emission threshold (Sp) and neutron-emission threshold (Sn) bracket this resonant state, what ⁴He beam energy was used for the present measurement, and what centroid energy (Er) and width (Γr) for the 0+₂ resonance were extracted from the Fano analysis?
The 0+₂ state lies between the p + ³H breakup channel starting at the proton-emission threshold Sp = 19.813 MeV and the n + ³He breakup channel demarcated by the neutron emission threshold Sn at 20.578 MeV. The present measurement used a ⁴He beam energy of 53 MeV (13.2 MeV/u) at the INFN-LNS K800 Superconducting Cyclotron in Catania. From the Fano analysis, the resonance centroid is found at Er = 0.50 ± 0.02 MeV (corresponding to an excitation energy Ex = 20.31 ± 0.02 MeV) and the extracted width is Γr = 0.29 ± 0.04 MeV.
arXiv-2605.23654-Probing-nuclear-interactions-la-Rutherfo.pdf, pp. 3, 5, 6, 10 · multi-source · hard
In the reversible-jump MCMC paper that finds three binary black hole subpopulations, match each subpopulation's primary-mass scale to its spin signature, its mass-ratio (pairing) preference, and its inferred formation channel. The qualitative descriptions appear in the abstract and the quantitative χeff restatement appears in Section 2. Give all three assignments: (1) the ~10 M⊙ subpopulation, (2) the ~30 M⊙ subpopulation, and (3) the high-spin continuum.
The paper identifies three BBH subpopulations. (1) A narrow subpopulation in primary mass at ~10 M⊙ with preferentially aligned spins and unequal masses, consistent with isolated binary evolution; Section 2 restates this as m1 ≈ 10 M⊙ with small positive χeff and a mild preference for unequal-mass pairings. (2) A subpopulation broadly distributed around ~30 M⊙ with isotropically-distributed spins and a strong preference for equal mass ratios, consistent with dynamical formation in clusters; Section 2 restates this as a broad peak at m1 ∼ 30 M⊙ with a χeff distribution centered at zero and a strong preference for equal-mass pairings, consistent with dynamical assembly. (3) A high-spin subpopulation spanning the continuum in mass, interpreted as the confluence of multiple subdominant formation channels; Section 2 describes it as a high-spin continuum extending to high masses with a positive-mean, broad χeff distribution.
arXiv-2605.25980-Reversible-jump-MCMC-reveals-binary-blac.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · multi-source · hard
In the DiscoverPhysics paper, the authors contrast LLM performance on a static knowledge benchmark with performance on their own interactive discovery benchmark. (a) On the GPQA benchmark — described as 448 expert-validated, "Google-proof" graduate-level questions in physics, chemistry, and biology — what accuracy do current state-of-the-art LLMs achieve, and what accuracy do the domain PhDs who validated it reach? (b) By contrast, on the paper's own DiscoverPhysics benchmark of simulated worlds, what fraction of the worlds do the strongest agents pass, and what kind of worlds do they consistently fail on? Combine both to characterize the capability gap.
On the static GPQA benchmark (448 expert-validated, "Google-proof" graduate-level questions in physics, chemistry, and biology), current state-of-the-art LLMs achieve over 90% accuracy, while the domain PhDs used to validate it reach 65–74% accuracy. By contrast, on the paper's own DiscoverPhysics benchmark of simulated worlds, the strongest agents pass only about half of the worlds, consistently failing on those that require uncovering latent structure such as hidden particle species or extra dimensions. The gap shows that strong GPQA performance reflects "what a model has learned about known science, but not what it can discover" — LLMs that exceed 90% on recalling known science only solve roughly half the worlds when active scientific discovery is required.
arXiv-2605.26087-DiscoverPhysics-Benchmarking-LLMs-for-Ou.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
In the Boyer et al. SARS-CoV-2 within-host joint model, trace how the quantity of infectious virus (V) is represented and ultimately observed: (a) name the two distinct viral quantities in the per-individual latent state besides symptom onset, test measurements, covariates and test characteristics; (b) state which of those two quantities the authors directly parameterize (and which is derived from it) and the data-availability reason they give for that choice; and (c) for the quantitative TCID50 culture assay, give the mechanistic relationship the authors derive between the observed day of positivity and infectious virus, including what the slope coefficient b equals.
(a) The per-individual latent state {(Vit, Rit, Yit, Zit, Xi, Si)} includes two distinct viral quantities: Vit is infectious virus and Rit is viral RNA copies. (b) Because quantitative RT-PCR (qPCR) data are available for all individuals whereas viral culture data are limited to a subset, the authors directly parameterize the viral RNA trajectory (log Rt = gs(t; theta)) and derive the infectious virus trajectory from it. (c) For the quantitative TCID50 assay, the mechanistic observation model is d* = a - b log Vt + epsilon, with epsilon ~ Normal(0, sigma_TCID50), where b = 1/r > 0 is the inverse culture growth rate (r being the rate at which the virus replicates exponentially in culture) and a = (log V_dagger - log c0)/r absorbs the detection threshold and proportionality constant.
arXiv-2605.20692-Inferring-infectiousness-a-joint-model-o.pdf, pp. 8, 13, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the LGB+ macroeconomic forecasting "road test" paper, the author forecasts six U.S. macroeconomic aggregates at quarterly frequency. Name all six aggregates, state which single one has no Survey of Professional Forecasters (SPF) benchmark, and give the two distinct post-COVID evaluation start dates and which variables each applies to.
The six U.S. macroeconomic aggregates forecast are: headline CPI inflation, GDP growth, the unemployment rate, housing starts (log growth rate), industrial production, and the term spread (10-year minus 3-month Treasury yield). The term spread (denoted ∆Spread in the results table) has no SPF benchmark. The post-COVID evaluation starts 2022Q1 for GDP, unemployment, and industrial production; and 2021Q1 for inflation, housing starts, and ∆Spread.
arXiv-2605.09740-LGB-A-Macroeconomic-Forecasting-Road-Tes.pdf, pp. 3, 12, 14 · multi-source · hard
In this quantum metrology and sensing review, the single-parameter quantum Cramér-Rao bound (QCRB) and the asymptotic scaling classification of the quantum Fisher information are stated in adjacent sections. (a) Write the QCRB inequality bounding the variance Δ[θ], stating what M and F(θ) denote, and over what set F(θ) is maximized. (b) Given that the QFI of an N-probe state is said to scale as F(θ) ∼ N^µ, state which value of the scaling exponent µ corresponds to the standard quantum limit (SQL) and which value corresponds to the Heisenberg limit (HL), and name what regime arises when a system surpasses the HL.
(a) The quantum Cramér-Rao bound is Δ[θ] ≥ 1/(M F(θ)), where M denotes the number of independent repetitions of the experiment and F(θ) is the quantum Fisher information (QFI). The QFI is obtained by maximizing the classical Fisher information over all POVMs: F(θ) = max_{Πi} F(θ). (b) The QFI may scale as F(θ) ∼ N^µ with µ being the scaling component (exponent). The standard quantum limit (SQL) corresponds to µ = 1, while when µ > 1 the system exhibits a quantum advantage; when µ ∼ 2 the scaling reaches the Heisenberg limit (HL). Certain quantum systems can surpass the HL, a regime informally referred to as the super-Heisenberg limit.
arXiv-2605.21702-Journey-in-quantum-metrology-and-sensing.pdf, pp. 7, 8 · multi-source · hard
In this paper on radial-migration-driven Galactic disc expansion with a U-shaped stellar age profile, the authors describe both where the Milky Way's local star formation ends and how far radial migration has spread its stars. Combining the abstract's statement about the truncation radius and migrated extent with the model results in the Methods, state: (a) the approximate radius at which local star formation in the Galaxy truncates; (b) the radius out to which radial migration has expanded the Milky Way beyond its native star formation regime; and (c) the estimated average (mean) migration distance over 10 Gyr that is converted from the best-fitted radial migration strength. Do NOT report the disk scale length or the maximum migration distance as the average migration distance.
Local star formation in the Galaxy truncates around 12 kpc, and radial migration has expanded the Milky Way far beyond its native star formation regime out to 20 kpc. Converting the best-fitted radial migration strength to an average migration distance over 10 Gyr, the estimate is 2.89 kpc (moderately higher than previous estimates of 2.1-2.4 kpc). This 2.89 kpc average is distinct from the model's exponential disk scale length of 2.6 kpc and from the maximum migration distance of 9 kpc.
arXiv-2605.23132-Evidence-of-radial-migration-driven-Gala.pdf, pp. 1, 8, 9 · multi-source · hard
What landmark result does each of these five papers report: 'Deep Residual Learning for Image Recognition', 'Attention Is All You Need', 'Language Models are Few-Shot Learners', the ATLAS Higgs-search paper, and the LIGO GW150914 paper?
ResNet - deep residual learning enabling very deep image-recognition networks; Attention Is All You Need - the Transformer, an attention-only sequence architecture; GPT-3 - large language models as few-shot in-context learners; ATLAS - observation of a new particle (the Higgs boson) at the LHC; LIGO - first direct observation of gravitational waves from a binary black hole merger.
arXiv-1512.03385-ResNet.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-1706.03762-attention-is-all-you-need.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2005.14165-GPT3.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-1207.7214-ATLAS-Higgs.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-1602.03837-LIGO-GW150914.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Which sociologist is credited with describing the 'sociological imagination,' and in what year?
C. Wright Mills, in 1959
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 21 · single fact · medium
According to OpenStax Introduction to Sociology, who first coined the term 'sociology,' and in what year?
Emmanuel-Joseph Sieyes, a French essayist, first coined it in 1780
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · hard
What did Auguste Comte name the scientific study of social patterns?
Positivism
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · medium
In OpenStax Introduction to Sociology, what term refers to the laws, morals, values, religious beliefs, customs, fashions, rituals, and cultural rules that govern social life?
Social facts
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 21 · single fact · medium
Trace the early naming of sociology per OpenStax: who first coined the term and when, who reinvented it and when, and what did the latter call the scientific study of social patterns?
Emmanuel-Joseph Sieyes first coined 'sociology' in 1780; Auguste Comte reinvented the term in 1838; Comte named the scientific study of social patterns 'positivism'
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 24 · multi-source · hard
According to OpenStax Introduction to Sociology, which three theoretical paradigms have come to dominate sociological thinking?
Structural functionalism, conflict theory, and symbolic interactionism
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 29 · single fact · medium
In Emile Durkheim's classic study of suicide described in OpenStax, which religious group did he find more likely to commit suicide?
Protestants (more likely than Catholics)
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 29 · single fact · hard
For the sociological paradigm of symbolic interactionism, who is considered its founder, and who actually coined the term 'symbolic interactionism'?
George Herbert Mead is considered the founder (though he never published his work on it); his student Herbert Blumer coined the term 'symbolic interactionism'
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 33 · multi-source · hard
Of the three dominant sociological paradigms, which one is described as a micro-level theory, and what are the other two?
Symbolic interactionism is the micro-level theory; the other two are structural functionalism and conflict theory
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 29, 33 · multi-source · hard
In OpenStax sociology, which sociologist is associated with the concept of the 'looking-glass self'?
Charles Horton Cooley (Cooley, 1902)
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 125 · single fact · medium
According to OpenStax sociology, whose earlier concept does Erving Goffman's dramaturgy build upon?
Charles Cooley's 'looking-glass self'
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 125 · single fact · hard
According to OpenStax's Introduction to Sociology, who proposed the Davis-Moore thesis and what does it argue?
Kingsley Davis and Wilbert Moore (1945); the thesis argues that some social stratification is a social necessity and is functional for society
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 263, 267 · single fact · medium
In OpenStax's Introduction to Sociology, which sociologist developed strain theory as a functionalist explanation of deviance, and what is its core idea?
Robert Merton; strain theory holds that deviance arises from a lack of legitimate means to reach socially accepted (culturally approved) goals
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 191, 197 · single fact · medium
In OpenStax's Introduction to Sociology, who distinguished primary from secondary deviance within labeling theory?
Edwin Lemert; he identified primary deviance (norm violations with no lasting effect on self-image) and secondary deviance (when self-concept/behavior change after being labeled deviant)
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 194 · single fact · medium
What is the Davis-Moore thesis on stratification, and who offered an influential early criticism of it?
Davis & Moore (1945) argued some stratification is a functional social necessity; in 1953 Melvin Tumin criticized it, arguing it fails to explain inequalities (e.g., in education) and overlooks how stratification limits the discovery of talent
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 263, 264 · multi-source · hard
Contrast the functionalist (strain theory) and labeling-theory explanations of deviance as presented in OpenStax's Introduction to Sociology.
Strain theory (Merton, functionalist) locates deviance in the gap between culturally approved goals and the legitimate means to reach them; labeling theory (interactionist, with Lemert's primary/secondary deviance) locates it in society's reaction - the labels others apply - rather than in the act itself
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 191, 194 · multi-source · hard
In OpenStax's Introduction to Sociology, what is the central premise of conflict theory, and what is a major criticism leveled against it?
Conflict theory (a macro approach most identified with Karl Marx) views society as a competition for limited resources; it has been criticized for focusing too much on conflict and not enough on the stability/cohesion of society
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 32, 33 · multi-source · medium
According to OpenStax Introduction to Sociology, in what year and by whom was the term 'sociology' reintroduced?
In 1838, by Auguste Comte (1798-1857)
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 24 · single fact · hard
Which three theoretical perspectives does the OpenStax sociology text present as the major sociological paradigms?
Functionalism (structural functionalism), conflict theory, and symbolic interactionism
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 29 · single fact · medium
How does the OpenStax sociology text classify symbolic interactionism by level of analysis, and who is considered its founder?
A micro-level theory; George Herbert Mead is considered a founder (he shares the title with Charles Cooley and Erving Goffman)
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, pp. 28, 33 · single fact · medium
In Caron's study of expanding public education for disabled students, over what period did every U.S. state adopt the mandates, and what empirical design identifies their impact?
Between 1949 and 1980; a difference-in-difference design using variation in the timing of the state mandates
arXiv-2604.25767-The-Short-and-Long-Term-Impacts-of-Expan.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In Caron's study, what education effects did the disabled-student mandates have on individuals who were below school age when a mandate was implemented?
About 20% less likely to have no education, and up to 0.23 more years of education attained
arXiv-2604.25767-The-Short-and-Long-Term-Impacts-of-Expan.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
By how much did the disabled-student education mandates increase spending per student, according to Caron's study?
By up to 15%
arXiv-2604.25767-The-Short-and-Long-Term-Impacts-of-Expan.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
Who does the OpenStax sociology text credit with the concept of the 'sociological imagination,' and how did he describe it?
C. Wright Mills; he described it as an awareness of the relationship between a person's behavior and experience and the wider society
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-3e.pdf, p. 21 · single fact · medium
In the 'Who Uses AI Platforms' study, what share of consumer versus enterprise Claude conversations do Computer and Mathematical occupations generate, and what share of U.S. employment do they represent?
32 percent of consumer Claude conversations and 52 percent of enterprise conversations, versus only 3.4 percent of U.S. employment
arXiv-2605.21743-Who-Uses-AI-Platforms-Workforce-and-AI-E.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · hard
In the 'Who Uses AI Platforms' study, what share of U.S. employment do Food Preparation workers make up, versus their share of Claude conversations?
8.8 percent of U.S. employment but only 0.7 percent of conversations
arXiv-2605.21743-Who-Uses-AI-Platforms-Workforce-and-AI-E.pdf, p. 3 · single fact · medium
In the University of Jordan cross-sectional study of neck pain among students, what percentage of the included students reported neck pain, and what was the single most common pain site (and its percentage)?
Of the 507 students included, 52.4% reported neck pain. The most common pain site was the cervical region at 56%, followed by both shoulders (30.5%), right shoulder (8.3%), and left shoulder (5.2%).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0326478-The-prevalence-of-neck-pain-and-its-asso.pdf, p. 5 · single fact · hard
In the University of Jordan neck pain study, which studying device was used most as the primary study utility, and what share of students reported sitting slouched while studying?
Laptops were the most used primary studying utility at 31.4% (followed by tablets 28.4%, phones 20.3%, and books 19.9%). 37.3% of students reported sitting slouched while studying.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0326478-The-prevalence-of-neck-pain-and-its-asso.pdf, p. 5 · single fact · medium
In the qualitative study on the 'backfire potential' of run streaking, how many recreational runners were interviewed, what was their minimum completed streak length, and how is run streaking defined?
Seventeen recreational adult runners were interviewed (10 male, 6 female, 1 other gender), and all had ended a run streak of at least 100 consecutive days. Run streaking is defined as running on consecutive days for a minimum of one mile per day. Transcripts were analyzed using a hybrid deductive-inductive thematic analysis.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0317254-The-dark-side-of-streaking-Examining-the.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In the mixed-methods study of dengue vaccine acceptability in Piura and Iquitos, Peru, what framework guided the study, what were its two data-collection components and their sample sizes, and how were survey participants classified by acceptability?
The study was guided by the 5C's Framework of Vaccine Hesitancy. It comprised 16 focus group discussions (n = 147) exploring acceptability and concerns, followed by a survey (n = 883) quantifying acceptability. Using the theory-driven, multi-item classification, 81.9% of survey participants were 'acceptors', 14.5% were 'unsure', and 3.6% would not accept the vaccine.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0013572-Dengue-vaccine-acceptability-in-Peru-A-m.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
The systematic review of sex differences in tuberculosis prevalence reports an overall pooled male-to-female (M:F) prevalence ratio for bacteriologically confirmed TB. What was that ratio (with credible interval), and did the review find the sex disparity had narrowed or widened over time?
The overall pooled M:F prevalence ratio of bacteriologically confirmed TB was 2.02 (95% credible interval 1.71-2.34) - men had about twice the prevalence of women. The disparity widened over time: surveys published after the 2016 (Horton and colleagues) review had a higher pooled M:F ratio of 2.34 (95% CrI 1.95-2.79), compared with 1.79 for surveys in the previous review.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmed.1005114-Differences-in-tuberculosis-prevalence-b.pdf, pp. 9, 11 · single fact · hard
In Figure 3 of the tuberculosis sex-difference review (a forest plot of male-to-female TB prevalence ratios across surveys by world region), are the survey point estimates predominantly to the left or to the right of the null ratio of 1, and what does that pattern indicate?
The survey point estimates lie predominantly to the right of the null ratio of 1, indicating that bacteriologically confirmed TB prevalence is consistently higher among males than females across surveys and world regions (most male-to-female ratios exceed 1).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmed.1005114-Differences-in-tuberculosis-prevalence-b.pdf, p. 9 · single fact · medium
In the Barbados study of contraceptive use among reproductive-age women during the early COVID-19 pandemic, what percentage of the 1,094 women reported current contraceptive use, and which relationship-status group had the highest odds of contraceptive use (with odds ratio)?
Among the 1,094 women, 34.2% (n = 333) reported current contraceptive use. Being married or cohabiting had the highest odds of contraceptive use (OR 2.49; 95% CI 1.65-3.77), compared with being partnered but not cohabiting (OR 1.57; 95% CI 1.10-2.22); tertiary education was also associated with higher odds (OR 1.68; 95% CI 1.24-2.28).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pgph.0006049-Factors-associated-with-contraceptive-us.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of whether cows can recognize humans, how many cows were tested, and what were the two significant findings from the visual preference test and the cross-modal test?
Thirty-two cows were tested. In the visual preference test (two silent videos of a familiar vs an unfamiliar human face), the cows looked significantly longer at the video showing the unfamiliar person (p = 0.028). In the cross-modal test (videos accompanied by a congruent or incongruent voice), they looked significantly longer at the video that was congruent with the voice being played (p = 0.014). Together these show cows can discriminate familiar from unfamiliar individuals and form cross-modal representations of people.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0329529-Cows-visually-discriminate-and-cross-mod.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of 'state-amplified platform inequality' in China's cultural economy, how did regional concentration in the radio and television broadcasting sector change after the 2017 digital cultural policy, as measured by the Gini coefficient, the spatial Gini index, and the Theil index?
Regional concentration in broadcasting intensified sharply after 2017: the Gini coefficient rose from 0.442 to 0.841, the spatial Gini index from 0.352 to 0.689, and the Theil index from 0.439 to 1.839. Structural break tests identified 2017 as a common breakpoint, and most regions showed negative post-policy growth slopes - indicating the policy deepened rather than reduced territorial inequality.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0333061-State-amplified-platform-inequality-The.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the study of anxiety and depression among reproductive-aged women in Bangladesh using the 2022 Demographic and Health Survey, what percentage had ever been diagnosed with anxiety and/or depression, how did that break down, and what percentage had sought care from the formal sector?
Overall, 7.6% of respondents reported ever being diagnosed with anxiety and/or depression. Disaggregated, 3.39% were diagnosed with anxiety only, 0.56% with depression only, and 3.62% with both conditions. Separately, 11.85% had sought care from the formal sector.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmen.0000620-Who-gets-help-Analyzing-disparities-in-d.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · hard
In the cross-sectional study of spiritual leadership and flight attendants' service performance, how many flight attendants were sampled and from which airline, and what mediating roles did meaningful work and work engagement play?
The study sampled 313 Chinese flight attendants from Tibet Airlines and its branches. Meaningful work and work engagement each exert independent mediating effects on the relationship between spiritual leadership and service performance, and they also jointly form a sequential mediating chain (a serial mediation). All four variables showed significant positive correlations.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0324405-Spiritual-leadership-and-service-perform.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In the qualitative study of autistic adults accessing mental health care in England, how many participants were interviewed and by what method, and what did participants identify as key for professionals to provide effective support?
Thirteen autistic adults with experience of mental health services in England were purposively selected for semi-structured interviews, analysed using reflexive thematic analysis. Participants felt that an understanding of autism was key for professionals to provide effective support, and reported that this understanding was often lacking - resulting in insufficient recognition of their autism-specific needs, feelings of neglect, and inadequate treatment (a recurring theme was not being believed or taken seriously - validation).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmen.0000581-Autistic-adults-experiences-of-accessing.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In the study of mental health service use across four provider types in Canada, which provider type was most accessed for mental health concerns and which was least, and what data source was used?
Family doctors were consistently the most accessed providers for mental health concerns, followed by psychologists and then social workers, with psychiatrists being the least accessed. The study analyzed seven cycles (2007-2020) of the Canadian Community Health Survey, a nationally representative cross-sectional survey. (Psychologist and social-worker use increased between 2017 and 2019.)
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0326556-Sociodemographic-and-mental-health-predi.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
In the study of new urbanization (NEU) and urban green innovation (GI) in China, what data were used, and what did it find about NEU's effect on the quantity and quality of green innovation?
The study used panel data from 284 cities over 2011-2022 with two-way fixed-effects and multivariate moderation models. It found that new urbanization significantly enhances both the 'quantity increase' and the 'quality improvement' of urban green innovation - the coefficients are positive and statistically significant at the 0.01 level. Digital inclusive finance (coupled with government technology support, informatization, regional economic development, and energy consumption) acts as a gain mechanism strengthening the effect, and government green support exerts a threshold effect.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0329052-The-impact-of-new-urbanization-on-quanti.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
Two econ.GN papers use polygenic indices for educational attainment (EA-PGI) to study inequality. What does each conclude about whether genetic predisposition and family/parental socioeconomic status (SES) interact in shaping later-life outcomes?
They reach opposite conclusions on gene-environment (GxSES) interaction. 'Sources of Inequality at Birth' runs a mega-analysis pooling HRS, WLS and ELSA across 45 traits and finds strong genetic and SES associations but no evidence of economically meaningful PGI x SES interactions (the interaction coefficients are small and centered around zero). By contrast, 'Effects of Genetic Propensity for Education' finds that EA-PGI does matter, but its effect on income is concentrated among the tertiary-educated and operates through differential sorting into higher-paying firms (employer sorting / job-to-job mobility), and is entirely absent for secondary-educated workers.
arXiv-2604.25522-Sources-of-Inequality-at-Birth-The-Inter.pdf, p. 5 · arXiv-2604.24336-Effects-of-Genetic-Propensity-for-Educat.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Across the two EA-PGI inequality studies, what sample and data source does each rely on, and what is the headline scope (number of traits or follow-up horizon) of each?
'Effects of Genetic Propensity for Education' uses Finnish registry data on 51,056 graduates followed annually since graduation for up to 25 years. 'Sources of Inequality at Birth' runs a mega-analysis pooling three longitudinal datasets - the Health and Retirement Study (HRS), the Wisconsin Longitudinal Study (WLS) and the English Longitudinal Study of Ageing (ELSA) - estimating 45 OLS regressions, one for each of 45 socioeconomic, anthropometric, health, behavioral and personality traits.
arXiv-2604.24336-Effects-of-Genetic-Propensity-for-Educat.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2604.25522-Sources-of-Inequality-at-Birth-The-Inter.pdf, p. 4 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 papers measure how AI is used at work from platform data. What underlying data and identification design does each use - the AI-occupational-exposure critique paper versus the M365 Copilot enterprise study?
'Who Uses AI? Platforms, Workforce, and AI Exposure' uses a 2015-2024 American Community Survey panel of 13.1 million person-year observations merged at the six-digit occupation level, and estimates a difference-in-differences (DiD) specification around the release of ChatGPT, varying only the platform-derived exposure input. 'AI in the Enterprise: How People Use M365 Copilot Chat' analyzes an anonymized, privacy-preserving sample of approximately 5.5 million M365 Copilot Chat sessions, combining a learned classification of user intent with an O*NET work-activity classification.
arXiv-2605.21743-Who-Uses-AI-Platforms-Workforce-and-AI-E.pdf, p. 3 · arXiv-2605.23958-AI-in-the-Enterprise-How-People-Use-M365.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two papers study U.S. labor-market mobility from large administrative/observational records. What dataset (and its size and years) does each use - the WIOA worker-retraining study versus the remote-work career-mobility study?
'Did US Worker Retraining Reduce Participant Automation Exposure?' analyzes over 23 million WIOA participation records (Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act) from 2017-2023, and constructs a 'Retrainability Index' based on post-intervention wage recovery and shifts in Routine Task Intensity (RTI). 'Remote work expands pathways to upward career mobility' uses 48 million U.S. job transitions between 2020 and 2024 linked to employer-level measures of remote eligibility from job postings.
arXiv-2605.03767-Did-US-Worker-Retraining-Reduce-Particip.pdf, p. 1 · arXiv-2605.01268-Remote-work-expands-pathways-to-upward-c.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · medium
Comparing the remote-work study and the WIOA retraining study, what does each find about wages and whether workers actually shift to better/less-automation-exposed work?
The remote-work paper finds a robust wage premium: entering a remote-eligible job is associated with a 0.04-log-point higher wage growth, an additional 4.13% increase in earnings versus comparable on-site entrants, with the largest gains for the lowest previous-wage tercile and a 2.05 percentage-point higher probability of an upward seniority move. The WIOA retraining paper finds WIOA rarely shifts workers into less automation-exposed work: 45% of participants return to their prior industry and 27% stay in the same occupation, so positive outcomes are rare and driven chiefly by wage gains that may reflect a 'catch-up' mean-reversion dynamic rather than occupational change.
arXiv-2605.01268-Remote-work-expands-pathways-to-upward-c.pdf, p. 9 · arXiv-2605.03767-Did-US-Worker-Retraining-Reduce-Particip.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
How strongly is the educational-attainment polygenic index (EA-PGI) associated with education itself in these two studies - the pooled-mega-analysis estimate versus how much the offspring EA-PGI association with years of education is attenuated once parental EA-PGIs are controlled?
In 'Sources of Inequality at Birth', the EA-PGI main effect on educational attainment is beta_s = 0.207 (p < 0.001) in the pooled HRS/WLS/ELSA mega-analysis (with the parental-SES main effect gamma_s = 0.336 and a near-zero PGI x SES interaction of -0.003). In 'Effects of Genetic Propensity for Education', the association between offspring EA-PGI and years of education is attenuated by approximately 25% after controlling for both maternal and paternal EA-PGIs, with both parental EA-PGIs significantly and similarly associated with offspring education.
arXiv-2604.25522-Sources-of-Inequality-at-Birth-The-Inter.pdf, p. 8 · arXiv-2604.24336-Effects-of-Genetic-Propensity-for-Educat.pdf, p. 13 · multi-source · hard
Both the AI-exposure critique and the M365 Copilot study warn that platform-based AI measures are skewed by who uses the platform. What specific evidence does each give that platform usage does not track the workforce?
The 'Who Uses AI?' paper shows platform conversation shares mix commercial penetration with task structure: across the 22 SOC major groups the ratio of platform-conversation density to workforce-employment density spans a factor of 72, and no platform-derived measure correlates with BLS employment shares above a Spearman rank correlation of 0.33. The 'AI in the Enterprise' M365 paper finds usage is broad but uneven, identifying work activities that are absent or underrepresented relative to the size of the relevant workforce (comparing Banking, Consulting and Manufacturing and occupational groupings), pointing to underused work as the next frontier for enterprise AI adoption.
arXiv-2605.21743-Who-Uses-AI-Platforms-Workforce-and-AI-E.pdf, p. 3 · arXiv-2605.23958-AI-in-the-Enterprise-How-People-Use-M365.pdf, p. 3 · multi-source · hard
In the Finnish 'Effects of Genetic Propensity for Education' study, by how much does controlling for parental EA-PGI reduce the offspring income gap, and how does the estimated effect of paternal EA-PGI on offspring income compare to the offspring's own EA-PGI?
Among tertiary-educated individuals, adjusting for parental EA-PGI reduces the income gap between the 90th and 10th percentiles of offspring EA-PGI by approximately 71% (and only paternal, not maternal, EA-PGI is significantly associated with offspring income). Strikingly, the effect of paternal EA-PGI on offspring income is larger than that of the offspring's own EA-PGI: about EUR 12,113 (CI EUR 5,509-18,717) versus EUR 5,048 (CI EUR -2,466-12,561) per one standard deviation in the respective EA-PGI.
arXiv-2604.24336-Effects-of-Genetic-Propensity-for-Educat.pdf, pp. 13, 17 · multi-source · hard
In the review chapter on indirect estimators of intergenerational mobility, what is the central interpretive framework for indirect estimators, and how much does the IV estimate of income persistence vary in the Swedish register data depending on whether region of residence or occupation is used as the instrument?
The chapter's central argument is that different estimators should be interpreted as differently weighted combinations of the underlying transmission pathways/channels (socioeconomic status is transmitted through multiple pathways with heterogeneous persistence rates, and the choice of instrument or imputation strategy determines these weights). Empirically, in the Swedish register data the IV estimate of income persistence is twice as large as the direct estimate when using region of residence as the instrument, but only about 25% higher than the direct estimate when using occupation.
arXiv-2605.19154-Indirect-Estimators-of-Intergenerational.pdf, pp. 2, 3 · multi-source · hard
In the 'Who Uses AI?' paper, by what factor does the post-ChatGPT employment coefficient change when only the platform input is varied, and by how much do estimates change once they are reweighted to Bureau of Labor Statistics workforce shares?
Holding outcome, sample, controls and estimator fixed while varying only the platform input changes the post-ChatGPT employment coefficient by a factor of 1.9 (and within-vendor consumer-versus-enterprise channels produce estimates that disagree in sign). Reweighting to Bureau of Labor Statistics workforce shares attenuates the estimates by 42 to 93 percent. The paper argues this reflects that platform-derived exposure scores partly measure the platform user base rather than the workforce.
arXiv-2605.21743-Who-Uses-AI-Platforms-Workforce-and-AI-E.pdf, pp. 1, 4 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 econ.GN papers each quantify an AI-and-economy phenomenon with a distinct machine-learning measurement method. For "AI Patents in the United States and China," name the model that is fine-tuned to build the classifier (and the classifier's own name), state how many unique U.S. AI patents and how many Chinese AI patents it identifies along with each country's coverage period, and give its headline U.S.-versus-China finding on recent annual patent counts. Separately, for the "Global Automation Atlas," name the language model used to label the O*NET tasks, state how many task-country labels the resulting dataset contains and how many countries it spans, and give its headline female-versus-male finding on labour margins. Do not mix the two studies' numbers or claims.
The AI-patents paper develops the FGYZ classifier by fine-tuning PatentSBERTa (a transformer-based language model pre-trained on patent texts) on the USPTO AI Patent Dataset (AIPD) seed/anti-seed data. Applying it, the authors identify 876,668 unique AI patents over 1976-2023 in the US and 651,630 AI patents over 2010-2023 in China, and document that China surpasses the United States in recent annual patent counts. The Global Automation Atlas instead labels automation exposure on O*NET tasks using Gemini 3.1 Flash-Lite under a fixed structured classification protocol, producing a dataset of 2.33 million task-country labels spanning 124 countries (economies covering 99% of world population and GDP); its headline finding is that females are more exposed to labour-substituting automation while males are more exposed to labour-augmenting automation.
arXiv-2604.10529-AI-Patents-in-the-United-States-and-Chin.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · arXiv-2605.17086-Global-Automation-Atlas.pdf, pp. 1, 3, 4 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 arXiv preprints study how post-training alignment/instruction-tuning skews LLM social judgments. One quantifies alignment's effect on hiring discrimination across a large model sweep; the other diagnoses Korean-language political-simulation bias. Across these two papers, report: (a) in the hiring study, how many models and how many occupations were analyzed, and by what percentages alignment amplifies the female advantage (relative to human correspondence studies) and amplifies the disability disadvantage (relative to matched pre-trained models); and (b) in the Korean political-simulation study, what percentage of moderate agents vote for progressive candidates under a vanilla prompt without mitigation, and the opposite-valence per-model split reported for the same 2025 race (Qwen3 vs. EXAONE).
The hiring study ("AI Alignment Amplifies the Role of Race, Gender, and Disability in Hiring Decisions") analyzes 27 models and 177 occupations; compared with previous human correspondence studies, language models amplify the female advantage by 190%, and relative to matched pre-trained models, alignment amplifies the disability disadvantage by 171%. The Korean political-simulation study ("Diagnosing Korean-Language LLM Political Bias via Census-Grounded Agent Simulation") finds that without bias mitigation, 97% of moderate agents vote for progressive candidates under a vanilla prompt, and reports an opposite-valence split on the same 2025 race of Qwen3 at +11.8%p (progressive bias) versus EXAONE at -17.2%p (conservative bias).
arXiv-2605.13866-AI-Alignment-Amplifies-the-Role-of-Race.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · arXiv-2605.18395-Diagnosing-Korean-Language-LLM-Political.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
Two small-n qualitative interview studies in this collection examine stigmatized groups: Taylor et al.'s study of autistic adults' experiences of mental health care, and Kwon et al.'s study of parents of LGBTQ+ children and misinformation. For each study, how many participants were actually recruited (and, for the autism study, the target recruitment range), and through what population or channel were participants recruited? Also give the interview format/length each study reported.
Taylor et al.'s autism study (PLOS Mental Health) aimed to recruit between 12–15 participants who were over 18, identified as autistic, and had experience of accessing and receiving mental health care in England; thirteen autistic adults were ultimately recruited, and they participated in semi-structured interviews. Kwon et al.'s LGBTQ+ study recruited a total of ten parents of LGBTQ+ individuals — recruited through PFLAG Korea, university LGBTQ+ communities, researchers' networks, and snowball sampling — and conducted semi-structured interviews lasting 60–80 minutes. Combined, the two studies interviewed 13 autistic adults (target 12–15, recruited in England) and 10 supportive parents (recruited via PFLAG Korea), for 23 participants across both qualitative studies.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pmen.0000581-Autistic-adults-experiences-of-accessing.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · arXiv-2605.20024-Journeys-of-Parents-with-LGBTQ-Children.pdf, p. 6 · multi-source · hard
Two PLOS One studies of China both use multi-year provincial/city panels. For the study of "state-amplified platform inequality" in digital cultural policy (Su et al.), state the panel's geographic unit count and year span and the start-to-end change in the Gini coefficient it reports for broadcasting concentration. For the study of new urbanization's effect on urban green innovation (Fang et al.), state that panel's unit count and year span and the statistical significance level at which the NEU coefficients are reported. Give each metric attached to the correct study.
The digital-cultural-policy study (Su et al., "State-amplified platform inequality: The economic geography of digital cultural policy in China") uses national- and provincial-level data from 2012 to 2023, with province-level data covering China's 31 administrative regions; in the radio and television broadcasting sector its Gini coefficient rose from 0.442 to 0.841. The new-urbanization/green-innovation study (Fang et al., "The impact of new urbanization on 'quantity increase and quality improvement' of urban green innovation") uses panel data from 284 cities from 2011 to 2022; it finds that the coefficients for NEU's impact on "quantity increase" and "quality improvement" of urban green innovation are statistically significant at the 0.01 level, with positive signs indicating enhancement effects. So the correct pairing is: 31 administrative regions / 2012-2023 / Gini 0.442 to 0.841 for Su et al., and 284 cities / 2011-2022 / significance at the 0.01 level for Fang et al.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0333061-State-amplified-platform-inequality-The.pdf, pp. 1, 7, 8 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0329052-The-impact-of-new-urbanization-on-quanti.pdf, pp. 1, 11 · multi-source · hard
Two PLOS health surveys are in the corpus: the Peru mixed-methods dengue vaccine acceptability study (in Piura and Iquitos) and the Barbados study on factors associated with contraceptive use among reproductive-age women during a pandemic. For each study, give the number of participants enrolled/analyzed in its quantitative survey and that study's headline prevalence/acceptance percentage, and also state the odds ratio reported for the association between severe anxiety and contraceptive use in the Barbados study.
In the Peru dengue vaccine acceptability study, a total of 883 of 1,240 invited participants (71%) were enrolled in the survey (survey n = 883), and most (81.9%) survey participants were classified as "acceptors" of a hypothetical dengue vaccine. In the Barbados contraceptive use study, a total of 1,094 women aged 18–49 years completed the survey, of whom 34.2% (n = 333) reported current contraceptive use. In that Barbados study, severe HADS anxiety scores were associated with higher odds of contraceptive use (OR 1.51; 95% CI 1.05-2.16).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0013572-Dengue-vaccine-acceptability-in-Peru-A-m.pdf, pp. 1, 7 · PLOS-10.1371_journal.pgph.0006049-Factors-associated-with-contraceptive-us.pdf, pp. 1, 5 · multi-source · hard
Two large-scale multi-model AI audits in this corpus probe different value conflicts. For the faith-transition study ("When AI Takes Sides on Questions of Faith") and the hiring-discrimination study ("AI Alignment Amplifies the Role of Race, Gender, and Disability in Hiring Decisions"), report for EACH study (a) the exact number of models evaluated and the breadth-of-coverage figure it cites to justify that selection, and (b) its single headline directional-bias finding with the verbatim percentage. Specifically: how many models did each audit cover and what market-share / employment-coverage figure does each cite, and what is each study's headline percentage finding (the faith study's odds-ratio result about leaving one named religion vs. another, and the hiring study's amplification of the female advantage)?
The faith-transition study evaluated 20 models total, drawn from 8 model families that "account for 88% of direct-to-provider AI market share worldwide, with GPT dominating at 76.92%"; its headline finding is that "models are 58% more likely to encourage users to leave the Jehovah's Witness religion than the Catholic faith" (and 67% less likely to encourage joining it). The hiring-discrimination study audited 27 models across 177 occupations "covering nearly half of U.S. employment"; its headline finding is that, compared with previous human correspondence studies, language models "reverse the direction of racial discrimination" and "amplify the female advantage by 190%." Aggregated: faith study = 20 models / 8 families / 88% market share (GPT 76.92%) / +58% leave-JW-vs-Catholic; hiring study = 27 models / 177 occupations / ~half of U.S. employment / reverses racial discrimination direction and +190% female advantage.
arXiv-2605.22975-When-AI-Takes-Sides-on-Questions-of-Fait.pdf, pp. 4, 10 · arXiv-2605.13866-AI-Alignment-Amplifies-the-Role-of-Race.pdf, pp. 1, 2, 3 · multi-source · hard
Two May 2026 econ.GN working papers study how generative AI reshapes work, but use different data and units of analysis. For each, identify (a) its data source and unit of analysis, and (b) its headline finding about how generative AI reorganizes who does the work. Specifically: In "Generative AI and the Reorganization of Labor Demand," what dataset is used, when does the composition effect turn negative, and what does the within-firm seniority pattern look like? And in "Generative AI Fuels Solo Entrepreneurship, but Teams Still Lead at the Top," how many launches are analyzed, on what platform, and which type of founder drives the entry expansion?
The two papers reach complementary "reorganization" conclusions from different data sources and units. "Generative AI and the Reorganization of Labor Demand" (Wang, Wei, and Wang, Purdue) uses a nationwide dataset of job postings in the United States, covering all sectors of the economy, and constructs a posting-level dynamic measure of generative AI exposure. Its reorganization finding: the composition effect turns negative after the third quarter of 2023, indicating that firms shift hiring away from jobs with higher baseline exposure; from Q3 2023 onward, hiring reallocation accounts for 52% of the decline in aggregate exposure while within-cell job redesign accounts for 39.46%. Within AI-adopting firms, junior employment declines relative to senior employment (a seniority-biased pattern driven mainly by slower junior hiring). By contrast, "Generative AI Fuels Solo Entrepreneurship, but Teams Still Lead at the Top" (Kim, Kang, and Song, Seoul National University) uses data on over 160,000 product launches on Product Hunt as its unit of analysis. Its reorganization finding: entrepreneurial entry increased sharply following the public release of ChatGPT-3.5, driven disproportionately by solo entrepreneurs (with the solo share increasing most in categories that historically relied on team-based ventures), but much of this growth reflects low-commitment, experimental entry and does not translate into greater representation among the highest-quality outcomes, where team-based ventures remain increasingly dominant. Thus the firm study's reorganization is a within-firm junior-vs-senior shift in hiring, while the entrepreneurship study's reorganization is a solo-vs-team shift in entry.
arXiv-2605.23159-Generative-AI-and-the-Reorganization-of.pdf, pp. 1, 5, 10 · arXiv-2605.10291-Generative-AI-Fuels-Solo-Entrepreneurshi.pdf, pp. 1, 3 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 papers study LLM-as-a-judge in different professional domains. For the legal benchmark JUDGMENTBENCH and the healthcare scoping review (Li et al.), give for EACH paper (a) its scale and (b) which model/provider it uses or finds dominant as the judge: specifically, how many real-world legal tasks and rubric scores does JUDGMENTBENCH release and which LLM autograder does it employ, versus how many studies does the healthcare review include and which model provider does it find is the most frequently used judge (and in how many of those studies / what percent)?
JUDGMENTBENCH (the legal paper, arXiv-2605.25240) releases a benchmark of 30 real-world legal tasks, paired with 1,539 rubric scores and 1,530 pairwise preference judgments, and it employs OpenAI's GPT-5.4 as the LLM autograder to perform rubric-based scoring and comparative judgments (finding comparative judgments recover the intended quality ordering far better than rubrics, mean Spearman's rank correlation of 0.908 vs. 0.150). The healthcare scoping review (Li et al., arXiv-2605.25273) includes 134 studies meeting all eligibility criteria, and finds that OpenAI models are the most frequently used judges, appearing in 90 of 134 studies (67.2%), followed by Google (Gemini, Gemma; n=35, 26.1%). So both domains center on OpenAI/GPT models as judges, but at very different scales: the legal benchmark is 30 tasks / 1,539 rubric scores with GPT-5.4 as the single autograder, whereas the healthcare review aggregates 134 studies in which OpenAI is the dominant provider at 67.2%.
arXiv-2605.25240-JudgmentBench-Comparing-Rubric-and-Prefe.pdf, pp. 1, 8 · arXiv-2605.25273-LLM-as-a-Judge-in-Healthcare-A-Scoping-A.pdf, pp. 4, 10 · multi-source · hard
Two 2026 arXiv papers both study political information in online/cross-platform media. For each, name the paper's primary empirical research object and its central method or finding: (a) the knowledge-gap field experiment conducted in Germany, and (b) the synthetic-political-narrative detection framework. Specifically, what data-collection method did the German knowledge-gap study combine with randomized encouragements, what did its results conclude about the knowledge gap hypothesis, and what is the single composite score the synthetic-narrative paper builds from its four coordination signals (name the signals) to detect cross-platform synthetic narratives?
(a) The knowledge-gap paper ("The Knowledge Gap in a High-Choice Media Environment") reports a field experiment in Germany combining randomized encouragements (verbal encouragement, financial encouragement, or control) and passive browser tracking (webtracking) to examine how individuals with varying education levels acquire policy-specific knowledge through online search on three salient policy topics (child support, energy transition, and cannabis legalization). While the interventions equalized information-seeking behavior, the results "provide some support for the knowledge gap hypothesis": knowledge gains were concentrated among participants with higher education or baseline civic knowledge, and the paper cites reviews concluding that "online media amplify knowledge gaps more than print." (b) The synthetic-narrative paper ("Detecting Synthetic Political Narratives in Cross-Platform Social Media Discourse") presents a cross-platform framework for detecting synthetic political narratives using four coordination signals — lexical diversity D(C), temporal burstiness B(C), rhetorical repetition R(C), and semantic homogenization H(C) — combined into a single composite Synthetic Narrative Coordination Score, SNC(C). Aggregated: the knowledge-gap paper's research object is education-based differential learning from online search (method: randomized-encouragement + webtracking field experiment in Germany), whereas the synthetic-narrative paper's research object is coordinated synthetic political narratives across Telegram and Reddit (method: the four-signal SNC(C) composite score).
arXiv-2605.21019-The-Knowledge-Gap-in-a-High-Choice-Media.pdf, pp. 2, 5, 7 · arXiv-2605.21540-Detecting-Synthetic-Political-Narratives.pdf, pp. 1, 2 · multi-source · hard
Two May 2026 arXiv preprints each audit a different misbehavior of large language models. In the faith-guidance study "When AI Takes Sides on Questions of Faith," how many language models were tested and across how many religion pairings, and which single model was identified as the strongest-asymmetry outlier? In the Milgram-style obedience study "Open-source LLMs administer maximum electric shocks," how many LLMs were tested and what was the headline finding about how far most of them went before refusing? Give the model counts and the headline finding from each paper.
The faith-guidance study ("When AI Takes Sides on Questions of Faith") tested 20 commercial and open-source language models across 182 religion pairings using a human-verified LLM-as-judge framework, and found that all models exhibited persistent asymmetries with Grok 4.20 exhibiting the strongest asymmetries (a clear outlier on the Asymmetry axis). The Milgram-style obedience study ("Open-source LLMs administer maximum electric shocks in a Milgram-like obedience experiment") ran a variation of Milgram's obedience experiment on 11 open-source LLMs (across 8 conditions with 30 trials per model per condition) and found that most models reached or approached the final/maximum shock level before refusing. Aggregating the two audits: 20 models were audited in the faith study and 11 in the obedience study; the faith-study headline was that Grok 4.20 was the strongest-asymmetry outlier among the 20 models, while the obedience-study headline was that most of the 11 models reached or approached the maximum shock level before refusing.
arXiv-2605.22975-When-AI-Takes-Sides-on-Questions-of-Fait.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · arXiv-2605.21401-Open-source-LLMs-administer-maximum-elec.pdf, pp. 1, 2, 4 · multi-source · hard
In the study "AI Alignment Amplifies the Role of Race" on hiring discrimination, across how many models and occupations (and what share of U.S. employment) was the analysis conducted; by what percentage does post-training alignment amplify the female advantage relative to previous human correspondence studies, and by what percentage does it amplify the disability disadvantage; and how does qualification responsiveness differ between pre-trained and instruction-tuned models (give the pseudo R2 values)?
The analysis was conducted across 27 models and 177 occupations covering nearly half of U.S. employment. Compared with previous human correspondence studies, the language models reverse the direction of racial discrimination, substantially attenuate the disability penalty, but amplify the female advantage by 190%. Post-training alignment amplifies the disability disadvantage by 171% (alongside amplifying the female and Black advantages by 325% and 330%). On qualification responsiveness, instruction-tuned models are far more responsive to qualifications: pre-trained models are near-random (pseudo R2 approximately 0), whereas instruction-tuned models achieve markedly better fit (pseudo R2 = 0.28), with alignment increasing all qualification weights by 218-444%.
arXiv-2605.13866-AI-Alignment-Amplifies-the-Role-of-Race.pdf, pp. 2, 3, 4, 6 · multi-source · hard
In the Global Automation Atlas paper, characterize the measurement architecture and two of its key descriptive findings by aggregating across the method and results sections. Specifically: (a) what task dictionary is the source and which LLM and protocol produce the labels; (b) what are the names of the four exposure levels on the exposure scale AND, separately, the names of the five technology-channel archetypes; (c) the labour-margin finding comparing substitution-only versus augmentation-only exposure across countries; and (d) the gender finding (after complementing with ILOSTAT) on which sex is more exposed to labour-substituting versus labour-augmenting automation.
(a) Method/source: The task dictionary is based on O*NET (O*NET version 29.1, released November 2024), retaining 18,797 unique standardised task statements. Task automation labelling uses Gemini 3.1 Flash-Lite under a fixed structured classification protocol, applied to 124 country contexts, producing 2,330,776 (2.33 million) country-task observations. (b) The exposure scale is a four-level scale that separates: Level 0 - no credible economic automation margin; Level 1 - assistive-only contact; Level 2 - meaningful partial economic exposure; Level 3 - extensive economic exposure (the economically exposed share = levels 2 or 3). This is DISTINCT from the dominant technology channel, which is one dominant channel from a fixed taxonomy of five technology archetypes: physical execution; rule-based workflow; information transformation; planning/control; and inference/scoring. (c) Labour-margin finding: Substitution-only exposure is larger than augmentation-only exposure in every country in the sample; low-income countries are especially skewed toward substitution among exposed tasks, while middle-income countries display wider heterogeneity. (d) Gender finding: Complementing the measure with ILOSTAT data shows that females are more exposed to labour-substituting automation both across occupations and industries, while males are more exposed to labour-augmenting automation across industries.
arXiv-2605.17086-Global-Automation-Atlas.pdf, pp. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 · multi-source · hard
In the PLOS Global Public Health study of contraceptive use among reproductive-age women in Barbados (George et al., 2026), aggregate the following from the survey of 1,094 women: (a) what percentage and count reported current contraceptive use versus no use; (b) among users reporting method type, what were the percentages and counts for the two most common method categories (short-acting reversible vs long-acting reversible); and (c) what was the adjusted odds ratio and 95% CI specifically for SEVERE HADS anxiety scores, and separately the adjusted odds ratio and 95% CI for UNIVERSITY education, as predictors of contraceptive use?
Among the 1,094 women surveyed, 34.2% (n = 333) reported current contraceptive use and 65.8% (n = 640) reported no contraceptive use. Among contraceptive users reporting method type, short-acting reversible methods were most common at 53.7% (n = 194), followed by long-acting reversible contraception at 24.4% (n = 88). Severe HADS anxiety scores were associated with higher odds of contraceptive use (OR 1.51; 95% CI 1.05-2.16), and women with university education were significantly more likely to report contraceptive use (OR 1.64; 95% CI 1.24-2.17).
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pgph.0006049-Factors-associated-with-contraceptive-us.pdf, pp. 1, 5 · multi-source · hard
In Behn et al.'s qualitative evidence synthesis on the lived experience of cognitive-communication changes after acquired brain injury, aggregate the overall scope and findings: (a) how many articles met the eligibility criteria, and how many people with ABI with CCD and how many familiar communication partners did those included studies report on in total; (b) how many main themes and how many sub-themes emerged from the thematic synthesis; and (c) for how many of the sub-themes was there high confidence in the review findings versus moderate confidence, and which sub-theme received the moderate rating?
Thirteen (13) articles met the eligibility criteria, reporting on 103 people with ABI with CCD and 66 familiar communication partners (including spouses, parents, friends, carers, siblings and children). From the thematic synthesis, two main themes and eight sub-themes emerged. There was high confidence in the review findings for seven of the eight sub-themes, and moderate confidence in the findings of one sub-theme — the Communication partner sub-theme "Relationship and life role changes" — which was downgraded due to minor concerns with methodological limitations and adequacy of rich data.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pone.0349220-Lived-experience-of-cognitive-communicat.pdf, pp. 1, 7 · multi-source · hard
In the 2nd-edition OpenStax Introduction to Sociology text, trace three early developments in sociology's founding: (a) in what year did Auguste Comte reinvent the term "sociology," and what name did he give to the scientific study of social patterns? (b) what was Harriet Martineau the first to do with Comte's writing, and what did that accomplish for English-speaking scholars? (c) in what year did Émile Durkheim publish Suicide, and what kind of statistics did he examine, comparing which two religious communities?
(a) In 1838, the term sociology was reinvented by Auguste Comte (1798–1857), and Comte named the scientific study of social patterns "positivism." (b) Harriet Martineau was the first to translate Comte's writing from French to English and thereby introduced sociology to English-speaking scholars. (c) In 1897, Durkheim published a work titled Suicide; he examined suicide statistics in different police districts to research differences between Catholic and Protestant communities.
OpenStax-Intro-Sociology-2e.pdf, pp. 19, 21 · multi-source · hard
In the mixed-methods Peru dengue-vaccine study (Cañari-Casaño et al., PLoS Negl Trop Dis 2026) conducted in Iquitos and Piura, the design moved from qualitative focus groups to a quantitative survey. Aggregating across the methods, study-population, and 5C's-results sections: (a) how many focus group discussions were held and with how many participants, and what was the survey sample size relative to the number invited (with the enrollment percentage); (b) what share of the n=883 survey respondents were women and what share had completed secondary education or higher; and (c) what percentage of survey respondents were classified as vaccine "acceptors" (willing to receive a new dengue vaccine), and how did belief that dengue can lead to death differ between the overall sample, refusers, and acceptors?
Design and enrollment: Sixteen focus group discussions were held with a total of 147 participants (n = 147), followed by a survey of n = 883. Of 1,240 invited participants, 883 (71%) were enrolled in the survey. Demographic profile of the n=883 survey respondents: the majority were women (71.1%), and around 83.5% had completed secondary education or higher. Belief findings: 81.9% (723) of respondents indicated they were willing to receive a new dengue vaccine when available and were classified as "acceptors". Most survey participants believed dengue can lead to death (94.4% overall), but this belief differed by group: only 81.3% of refusers and 88.3% of "unsures" held this belief, compared to 96.1% of acceptors.
PLOS-10.1371_journal.pntd.0013572-Dengue-vaccine-acceptability-in-Peru-A-m.pdf, pp. 1, 7, 9, 12 · multi-source · hard
In the BYU/B. H. Roberts Foundation study "When AI Takes Sides on Questions of Faith," combine three parts of the paper to characterize its scope and key findings: (a) how many language models, religion pairings, and religions were tested, how many model families those models span, and what share of direct-to-provider AI market the families cover (including the single dominant provider's share); (b) the ANOVA variance decomposition (Type II Sum of Squares) of Likert scores — what fraction of variance is attributable to religion main effects, to model main effects, and to model-religion interactions; and (c) under supermajority (>75%) agreement across the models, by how much more likely models are to encourage users to leave the Jehovah's Witness religion versus the Catholic faith. Give the precise figures.
Scope: the study tested 20 commercial and open-source language models across 182 religion pairings, covering 14 religions. The 20 models were drawn from 8 model families that together account for 88% of direct-to-provider AI market share worldwide, with GPT dominating at 76.92%. ANOVA variance decomposition (Type II Sum of Squares) of Likert scores: religion main effects account for roughly 30% of variance (precisely 30.2%), model main effects for roughly 15% (precisely 14.8%), and model-religion interactions for over 20% of variance (precisely 21.1%); religion-related factors total 51.3% and model-related factors total 35.9%, with a 34.0% residual. Supermajority finding: under supermajority (>75%) agreement across the 20 models, models are 58% more likely to encourage users to leave the Jehovah's Witness religion than the Catholic faith (and 67% less likely to encourage joining it), with odds ratios calculated relative to Catholic.
arXiv-2605.22975-When-AI-Takes-Sides-on-Questions-of-Fait.pdf, pp. 1, 4, 5, 6, 10 · multi-source · hard
In the German field-experiment paper "The Knowledge Gap in a High-Choice Media Environment," (a) how does the paper define the knowledge gap hypothesis and to whom does it attribute the original concept; (b) according to the paper's review of digital-environment research, what do reviews conclude about how online media compare to print in their effect on knowledge gaps, and who is cited for that conclusion; and (c) what did the authors' OWN webtracking field experiment actually find regarding the knowledge gap hypothesis? Distinguish the cited-literature claim from the paper's own empirical result.
(a) Definition and origin: The paper states that "The knowledge gap hypothesis states that as new information is disseminated via media, individuals with higher levels of education assimilate this knowledge more rapidly than those with less education (Tichenor et al., 1970)" (p5). It attributes the concept to Tichenor et al. (1970), describing it as the phenomenon whereby "better-educated individuals often learn more, and more quickly, from the same media content" (p3). (b) Cited-literature review claim: Reviewing knowledge inequalities in digital environments, the paper reports that higher-education individuals use the internet more for seeking political information and are better able to navigate online resources, "which contributes to widening education-based knowledge gaps," and notes "reviews concluding that online media amplify knowledge gaps more than print (Lind & Boomgaarden, 2019)" (p7). (c) The paper's OWN finding: From its German field experiment combining randomized encouragements and passive browser tracking, the authors report that "While the interventions equalized information-seeking behavior, the results provide some support for the knowledge gap hypothesis: knowledge gains were concentrated among participants with higher education or baseline civic knowledge" (p2). Thus the strong "online amplifies gaps more than print" statement is a conclusion the authors attribute to prior reviews (Lind & Boomgaarden, 2019), whereas the paper's own contribution is only the more qualified "some support for the knowledge gap hypothesis" from its webtracking experiment.
arXiv-2605.21019-The-Knowledge-Gap-in-a-High-Choice-Media.pdf, pp. 2, 3, 5, 7 · multi-source · hard
As of the Federal Reserve's July 2024 Monetary Policy Report, what was the target range for the federal funds rate, and since when had it been maintained?
5-1/4 to 5-1/2 percent (5.25%-5.50%), maintained since the FOMC's July 2023 meeting
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · hard
According to the Federal Reserve's July 2024 Monetary Policy Report, what did the unemployment rate edge up to, and in which month?
4.0 percent, in May 2024
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · medium
According to the Federal Reserve's 2024 Monetary Policy Reports, what was the peak 12-month PCE inflation rate reached in 2022?
7.1 percent (in June 2022)
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · hard
Did the FOMC change its target range for the federal funds rate between its March 2024 and July 2024 Monetary Policy Reports?
No - both reports state the target range was maintained at 5-1/4 to 5-1/2 percent, unchanged since the July 2023 meeting
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Mar2024.pdf, p. 7 · FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · multi-source · hard
How did the 12-month headline PCE inflation rate reported by the Federal Reserve change between its March 2024 and July 2024 Monetary Policy Reports?
It rose slightly, from 2.4 percent (12 months ending January, March report) to 2.6 percent (12 months ending May, July report)
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Mar2024.pdf, p. 7 · FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · multi-source · hard
How did 12-month core PCE inflation reported by the Federal Reserve change between its March 2024 and July 2024 Monetary Policy Reports?
It declined, from 2.8 percent (12 months ending January, March report) to 2.6 percent (12 months ending May, July report)
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Mar2024.pdf, p. 7 · FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · multi-source · hard
How did the average monthly payroll job gains cited by the Federal Reserve compare between its March 2024 and July 2024 Monetary Policy Reports?
March report: about 239,000 per month (since June); July report: about 248,000 per month (over the first five months of 2024)
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Mar2024.pdf, p. 7 · FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · multi-source · medium
What was the theme of the World Bank's World Development Report 2024?
The Middle-Income Trap
WorldBank-WDR-2024-Middle-Income-Trap.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
What was the theme of the World Bank's World Development Report 2019?
The Changing Nature of Work
WorldBank-WDR-2019-Changing-Nature-of-Work.pdf, p. 1 · single fact · medium
What were the themes of the World Bank's World Development Reports for 2019, 2021, 2022, and 2024?
2019: The Changing Nature of Work; 2021: Data for Better Lives; 2022: Finance for an Equitable Recovery; 2024: The Middle-Income Trap
WorldBank-WDR-2019-Changing-Nature-of-Work.pdf, p. 1 · WorldBank-WDR-2021-Data-for-Better-Lives.pdf, p. 4 · WorldBank-WDR-2022-Finance.pdf, p. 1 · WorldBank-WDR-2024-Middle-Income-Trap.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · hard
The World Bank's 2022 and 2024 World Development Reports each tackled a major economic challenge - what was the focus of each?
WDR 2022 focused on 'Finance for an Equitable Recovery' (the economic/financial fallout of COVID-19); WDR 2024 focused on 'The Middle-Income Trap' (how middle-income countries can reach high-income status)
WorldBank-WDR-2022-Finance.pdf, p. 1 · WorldBank-WDR-2024-Middle-Income-Trap.pdf, p. 1 · multi-source · medium
What three components make up the '3i strategy' proposed in the World Bank's World Development Report 2024?
Investment, infusion, and innovation
WorldBank-WDR-2024-Middle-Income-Trap.pdf, p. 6 · single fact · medium
The World Bank's World Development Report 2024 focuses on the 'middle-income trap' - what three-part growth strategy does it propose for escaping it?
The '3i strategy': investment, infusion, and innovation, with the mix recalibrated as a country develops
WorldBank-WDR-2024-Middle-Income-Trap.pdf, pp. 1, 6 · multi-source · hard
In the FOMC's December 2024 Summary of Economic Projections, what was the median projection for the federal funds rate at the end of 2025?
3.9 percent
FedReserve-FOMC-Projections-Dec2024.pdf, p. 2 · single fact · hard
How did the Federal Reserve's actual policy rate in mid-2024 compare with the FOMC's December 2024 median projection for the federal funds rate by the end of 2025?
The target range was held at 5-1/4 to 5-1/2 percent through July 2024; the December 2024 SEP projected a median funds rate of 3.9% at end-2025 - i.e., roughly 1.5 percentage points of cuts anticipated
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Jul2024.pdf, p. 7 · FedReserve-FOMC-Projections-Dec2024.pdf, p. 2 · multi-source · hard
According to the World Bank Comoros Poverty Assessment, in 2014 what percentage of the population (and roughly how many people) lived below the national basic-needs poverty line, and what was that line in local currency?
42.4 percent of the population (around 316,000 people); the basic-needs poverty line was KMF 25,341 per capita per month
WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · hard
What share of the Comoros population was in extreme poverty according to the World Bank Poverty Assessment?
About 23.5 percent (nearly one fourth) of the population
WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · medium
In the Comoros Poverty Assessment, the average consumption level of a poor Comorian was what fraction of the national poverty line?
Around 83 percent of the national poverty line
WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · medium
In the World Bank Costa Rica Country Economic Memorandum, how did Costa Rica's average per-capita income growth compare with Latin America as a whole?
1.2 percent for Costa Rica versus 0.8 percent for Latin America as a whole
WB-D7112164-Costa-Rica-Country-Economic-Memorandum.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
According to the Costa Rica Country Economic Memorandum, what share of Costa Rica's population lives on less than US$2 a day, compared with the regional poverty rate?
About 10 percent in Costa Rica versus about 25 percent region-wide
WB-D7112164-Costa-Rica-Country-Economic-Memorandum.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · medium
What is Costa Rica's literacy rate for people aged 15 and above as cited in the Country Economic Memorandum, versus the rest of the region?
Nearly 96 percent in Costa Rica versus 86 percent in the rest of the region
WB-D7112164-Costa-Rica-Country-Economic-Memorandum.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · medium
According to the World Bank Ethiopia Poverty Assessment, how did the prevalence of childhood stunting change between 2000 and 2011?
It was reduced from 58% in 2000 to 44% in 2011
WB-D24047887-Ethiopia-Poverty-assessment-Vol-1-of-2.pdf, p. 17 · single fact · medium
In the Ethiopia Poverty Assessment, what share of the population lived below the national poverty line in 2011?
Less than 30% of the population
WB-D24047887-Ethiopia-Poverty-assessment-Vol-1-of-2.pdf, p. 17 · single fact · medium
Comparing the two World Bank poverty assessments, what share of the population lived below the national poverty line in Comoros versus Ethiopia in their most recently cited years?
Comoros: 42.4% in 2014; Ethiopia: less than 30% in 2011 - the Comoros national poverty rate was markedly higher
WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · WB-D24047887-Ethiopia-Poverty-assessment-Vol-1-of-2.pdf, p. 17 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank East Asia and Pacific economic update, Figure 8 ('Share of total population over age 60, 1950-2040') plots three country groups. Which group reaches the highest share of population over age 60 by 2040, and approximately what level does it reach?
The group comprising Hong Kong SAR China, Japan, Republic of Korea, and Singapore reaches the highest share, climbing to roughly 30 percent by 2040. The middle group (China, Indonesia, Malaysia, Mongolia, Thailand, Vietnam) is intermediate, while the group of Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, and Timor-Leste stays lowest (around 10 percent).
WB-D18362461-East-Asia-and-Pacific-economic-update-Oc.pdf, p. 84 · single fact · hard
According to the World Bank East Asia and Pacific economic update's discussion of aging, how low have total fertility rates (TFRs) fallen in China, in Shanghai specifically, and in Thailand and Vietnam?
TFRs have fallen to 1.5 in China, as low as 0.7 in Shanghai, and 1.6 to 1.7 in Thailand and Vietnam.
WB-D18362461-East-Asia-and-Pacific-economic-update-Oc.pdf, p. 84 · single fact · medium
The World Bank East Asia and Pacific economic update contrasts the pace of population aging in East Asia and Pacific countries with that of OECD countries. Over what period is the change in age composition occurring in EAP countries, versus how long it took in the OECD?
Several East Asian countries are experiencing a change in age composition within a period of about 30 years that took a century or more to unfold in the OECD countries.
WB-D18362461-East-Asia-and-Pacific-economic-update-Oc.pdf, p. 84 · single fact · medium
In the World Bank Philippine Economic Update ('Accelerating Reforms to Sustain Growth'), what was the Philippines' year-on-year GDP growth in the third quarter of 2012, and which sector's strong performance was a key driver (and at what growth rate)?
The economy expanded by 7.1 percent year-on-year in the third quarter of 2012 (following 6.0 percent in 2Q), making it one of the fastest-growing economies in East Asia. A key driver was the construction sector, which grew by 24.8 percent - its fastest pace in nearly two years - contributing 1.9 percentage points to GDP growth.
WB-D17207306-Philippine-economic-update-accelerating.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
According to the World Bank Philippine Economic Update, which expenditure component contributed the most to the Philippines' third-quarter 2012 GDP growth, by how many percentage points, and what supported it?
Private consumption was the largest contributor, adding 4.3 percentage points to overall growth (it grew 6.2 percent year-on-year), supported by large inflows of overseas worker remittances. By comparison, construction contributed 1.9 ppt and government consumption 1.2 ppt.
WB-D17207306-Philippine-economic-update-accelerating.pdf, p. 11 · single fact · hard
In the World Bank Kosovo Public Expenditure Review, what share of GDP did Kosovo spend on social protection (including pensions) in 2008, and how did that compare with Albania, Montenegro, and Serbia?
Kosovo spent only 3.6 percent of GDP on social protection (including pensions) in 2008 (expected to rise to 3.8 percent in 2009). By comparison, Albania spent about 7 percent of GDP, Montenegro 12 percent, and Serbia 16.5 percent of GDP - so Kosovo's social-protection spending was the most modest of the four.
WB-D12507653-Kosovo-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 37 · single fact · hard
According to the World Bank Kosovo Public Expenditure Review, in 2008 social protection consumed roughly what share of consolidated government expenditures, and within social-protection spending, which component took the largest share and how much?
Social protection consumed about 15 percent of consolidated government expenditures in 2008. Within social-protection spending, pensions consumed the largest share at about 60 percent, social assistance about 25 percent, and veterans' benefits the remainder.
WB-D12507653-Kosovo-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 37 · single fact · hard
In the World Bank Sri Lanka Poverty Assessment, what does the 0.814 correlation between per-capita district Samurdhi funds and district poverty indicate about how the Samurdhi welfare program is targeted, and where do most targeting errors arise?
The high positive correlation (0.814 with the poverty rate, 0.711 with poverty depth) indicates that allocation of Samurdhi assistance at the central level is pro-poor. It also suggests that most targeting errors arise from misallocation at the local level - within provinces, poorer provinces allocate smaller shares of their Samurdhi funds to their poor (the correlation between the share going to the poorest strata and province poverty indicators ranges between -0.454 and -0.789).
WB-D1969788-Sri-Lanka-Poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 58 · single fact · hard
According to the World Bank Paraguay Country Economic Memorandum, total investment reached what share of GDP at the height of the Itaipu works (1977-81), and what happened to it in 1982-86?
Total investment reached 26 percent of GDP in the 1977-81 period, at the height of the works on Itaipu, then dropped to 22 percent of GDP in 1982-86. Private investment in particular declined sharply in the 1980s, while public investment remained high (on a cash basis it was somewhat higher in 1982-86 than in 1977-81).
WB-D1561206-Paraguay-Country-economic-memorandum.pdf, p. 30 · single fact · medium
Per the World Bank Paraguay Country Economic Memorandum, what did public investment average as a share of GDP in 1966-70, and how did that compare with the previous five years?
Public investment averaged 5.3 percent of GDP in 1966-70, double the rate of the previous five years, as the government began important programs in road construction, hydropower development, port-facility expansion, water services in Asuncion, and a cement plant.
WB-D1561206-Paraguay-Country-economic-memorandum.pdf, p. 22 · single fact · medium
As of the Federal Reserve's March 2024 Monetary Policy Report, what target range had the FOMC maintained for the federal funds rate, and since approximately when?
The FOMC had maintained the target range for the federal funds (policy) rate at 5-1/4 to 5-1/2 percent since its meeting the previous July (July 2023).
FedReserve-Monetary-Policy-Report-Mar2024.pdf, p. 8 · single fact · medium
According to the World Bank China Financial Sector Assessment, what was Chinese banks' non-performing loan (NPL) ratio at end-2010, and how had the absolute stock of NPLs changed from end-2005?
Banks' NPL ratio reflected a downward trend, reaching 1.1 percent at end-2010. The absolute stock of NPLs contracted to RMB 434 billion at end-2010, down from RMB 1.3 trillion at end-2005.
WB-D17872338-China-Financial-sector-assessment.pdf, p. 15 · single fact · hard
In the World Bank China Financial Sector Assessment, what combined share of total commercial bank assets did the five large commercial banks (LCBs) and the twelve joint-stock commercial banks (JSCBs) hold at end-2010?
Collectively, the five LCBs and the twelve JSCBs accounted for about 83 percent of total commercial bank assets at end-2010 (Figure 3: LCBs 63%, JSCBs 20%, city commercial banks 11%, rural commercial banks 4%, foreign banks 2%).
WB-D17872338-China-Financial-sector-assessment.pdf, p. 14 · single fact · medium
In the World Bank Albania 'new growth agenda' report, what was Albania's average annual growth between 1998 and 2010, and how did absolute poverty change between 2002 and 2008?
Albania's growth averaged more than 6 percent per year between 1998 and 2010 - the best performance in Europe. This helped reduce absolute poverty by half, with the headcount rate falling from 25 percent of the population in 2002 to 12 percent in 2008.
WB-D13145280-Albania-The-new-growth-agenda-a-country.pdf, p. 7 · single fact · medium
In the World Bank Tanzania Public Expenditure Review, what fiscal balance was expected for FY01 (compared with FY00), and what major tax reform did the FY01 budget introduce?
A fiscal surplus of about 1 percent of GDP was expected for FY01, compared with a deficit after grants of about 0.5 percent of GDP in FY00 (FY01 tax revenue came in 6 percent higher than target). Among further tax-reform steps, the FY01 budget introduced a value-added tax (VAT) on petroleum products.
WB-D1760784-Tanzania-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 33 · single fact · hard
According to the World Bank Tanzania Public Expenditure Review, how did social-sector spending and administration spending (as shares of GDP) change over roughly FY97-FY00?
Social-sector spending rose from 3.5 percent of GDP to 3.7 percent, then dipped slightly to 3.6 percent in FY00 (and rose to 4.1 percent in the first quarter of FY01). Meanwhile, spending on administration increased even faster, from 1.4 percent of GDP in FY97 to 2.1 percent of GDP in FY00.
WB-D1760784-Tanzania-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 10 · single fact · hard
In their respective World Bank poverty assessments, what share of the population lived below the NATIONAL poverty line in Burundi (2013/14) versus Lesotho (2017/18)?
Burundi's poverty assessment (ECVMB 2013-14) found 64.9 percent of the population (around 6.1 million people) lived below the national basic-needs poverty line. Lesotho's assessment found 49.7 percent lived below the national poverty line in 2017 (down from 56.6 percent in 2002). So Burundi's national poverty rate (64.9%) was roughly 15 percentage points higher than Lesotho's (49.7%).
WB-D26529370-Burundi-poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 14 · WB-D31634765-Lesotho-Poverty-Assessment-Progress-and.pdf, p. 26 · multi-source · hard
Comparing three World Bank poverty assessments, what was the poverty rate measured at the international US$1.90-a-day line (2011 PPP) in Burundi, Lesotho, and Angola?
At the international US$1.90/day line (2011 PPP): Burundi's poverty rate stood at 72.9 percent (2013/14); Lesotho's was about 27.3 percent in 2017; and in Angola the share below the US$1.90 line was 28.0 percent in 2014 (down only slightly from 32.3 percent in 2000). Burundi's international-line poverty was thus far higher (about 73%) than Lesotho's or Angola's (both roughly 27-28%).
WB-D26529370-Burundi-poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 14 · WB-D31634765-Lesotho-Poverty-Assessment-Progress-and.pdf, p. 30 · WB-D32184676-Angola-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 13 · multi-source · hard
What was the value of the national basic-needs poverty line (in local currency, per the stated period) in the World Bank poverty assessments for Burundi versus Comoros?
Burundi's national basic-needs poverty line was BIF 41,054 per adult per month (ECVMB 2013-14). Comoros' national basic-needs poverty line was KMF 25,341 per capita per month (2014). They are denominated in different currencies (Burundi francs vs Comorian francs) and on different bases (per adult equivalent vs per capita).
WB-D26529370-Burundi-poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 14 · WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · multi-source · hard
Using the common 2,200-kilocalorie food/extreme-poverty definition, what share of the population was in extreme poverty in Burundi versus Comoros, according to their World Bank poverty assessments?
Burundi: about 38.7 percent of the population (around 3.6 million people) lived in extreme poverty, unable to meet the 2,200 kcal per adult-equivalent per day minimum. Comoros: about 23.5 percent of the population was in extreme poverty under the same 2,200 kcal per person per day standard. Burundi's extreme-poverty incidence was roughly 15 percentage points higher than Comoros'.
WB-D26529370-Burundi-poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 14 · WB-D29791823-Comoros-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 15 · multi-source · hard
How did rural versus urban poverty incidence compare across the World Bank poverty assessments for Angola (2019), Lesotho (2017/18), and Lao PDR (2018/19)?
Angola: rural poverty 54.7% versus urban 17.8% (almost three times higher in rural areas). Lesotho: rural poverty 60.7% versus urban 28.5% in 2017. Lao PDR: rural poverty 23.8% versus urban 7%. In all three, rural rates were roughly 3x urban, but the levels differed sharply - Lesotho and Angola had rural rates above 50%, while Lao PDR's rural rate was about 24%.
WB-D32184676-Angola-Poverty-Assessment.pdf, p. 13 · WB-D31634765-Lesotho-Poverty-Assessment-Progress-and.pdf, p. 27 · WB-D32433028-Lao-People-s-Democratic-Republic-Poverty.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · hard
According to their World Bank public expenditure reviews, roughly what share of GDP did public spending on health amount to in Georgia versus Tajikistan in the early 2000s, and from what earlier level had Tajikistan's fallen?
Georgia's public spending on health was about 1.3 percent of GDP in 2001 (about US$8 per capita), well below the CIS average of 3.5 percent of GDP. Tajikistan's health expenditure had declined steeply in the 1990s from around 5-6 percent of GDP to about 1 percent of GDP in 2002 (below US$2 per capita) - among the lowest in the world. So both spent only about 1-1.3 percent of GDP on health, but Tajikistan had fallen there from a much higher 5-6 percent.
WB-D2090140-Georgia-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 24 · WB-D6568249-Tajikistan-Public-expenditure-and-instit.pdf, p. 22 · multi-source · hard
How deep/severe was poverty among the poor in the Burundi (2013/14) versus Lao PDR (2018/19) poverty assessments - i.e., what were the reported severity-of-poverty (squared poverty gap) or poverty-gap figures, and how far below the line did the average poor person fall?
Burundi: the severity of poverty (squared poverty gap) was estimated at 12 percent, and the average consumption of a poor Burundian was around 75 percent of the national poverty line (i.e., the poverty gap implied the poor fell about 25% below the line). Lao PDR: the poverty gap was estimated at 3.9 percent nationally (5.1 percent rural, 1.3 percent urban). Poverty among the poor was far deeper in Burundi (severity 12%; poor at ~75% of the line) than in Lao PDR (poverty gap only 3.9%).
WB-D26529370-Burundi-poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 44 · WB-D32433028-Lao-People-s-Democratic-Republic-Poverty.pdf, p. 19 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Tajikistan public-expenditure review, how severe was the 1990s economic collapse and poverty in Tajikistan, and how had the consumption-poverty rate changed by 2003?
Real GDP contracted by about 60 percent on a cumulative basis between 1991 and 1996 (driven by independence shocks and a civil war that took 50,000 lives). By 1999, about 80 percent of Tajik people lived below the poverty line, with per-capita GDP of roughly US$180, making Tajikistan one of the poorest countries in the world. By 2003, living-standards survey data showed the consumption poverty rate had declined by about 20 percentage points to 60 percent.
WB-D6568249-Tajikistan-Public-expenditure-and-instit.pdf, pp. 7, 8 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Georgia public expenditure review, how did Georgia's PUBLIC spending on education compare with its TOTAL (public plus private) education spending as shares of GDP, and how did public education spending compare with the CIS regional average?
Georgia's overall (public plus private) education expenditure was about 4.9 percent of GDP in 2000 - close to OECD levels (about 5.1 percent of GDP) - but over half of that was out-of-pocket household spending. Public expenditure on education alone was only around 2.2 percent of GDP, below the CIS regional average of 4.6 percent of GDP. So the high total reflected heavy private/household financing, not strong public funding.
WB-D2090140-Georgia-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 25 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Bulgaria Poverty Assessment, using the report's two-thirds mean 1997 per capita consumption poverty line (the series in Table 1), what did Bulgaria's poverty rate peak at during the 1997 crisis and what did it fall to by 2001, and what two macroeconomic shocks during the 1996-1997 crisis does the report identify as the backdrop for that poverty spike?
Using the report's poverty line of two-thirds mean 1997 per capita consumption (Table 1), Bulgaria's poverty rate escalated to 36.0 percent of the population during the 1997 crisis, then fell by nearly two-thirds to 12.8 percent by 2001. This poverty spike occurred against the backdrop of the 1996-1997 economic crisis, which was marked by a decline in real GDP of 18 percent and annual inflation of 579 percent in 1997.
WB-D2064720-Bulgaria-Poverty-assessment.pdf, p. 9 · multi-source · hard
In Cameroon's Public Expenditure Review, under the Growth and Employment Strategy (DSCE) rollout, three indicators of the country's deteriorating fiscal position each moved between specific years. By how much did capital spending rise as a share of GDP between 2007 and 2015, what were the realized overall fiscal deficit levels in 2010 versus 2016, and how far did the public debt stock climb as a share of GDP between 2009 and 2017? Combine all three trajectories.
Under the DSCE rollout, all three indicators deteriorated. Capital spending rose from 3.5 percent of GDP in 2007 to 5.8 percent in 2015. The overall fiscal balance began deteriorating in 2010, when the fiscal deficit reached 1.1 percent of GDP, and by 2016 the deficit had widened to 6.1 percent of GDP. New non-concessional borrowing to finance public investment projects drove the public debt stock from 10.1 percent of GDP in 2009 to 33.7 percent in 2017.
WB-D29757758-Cameroon-Public-Expenditure-Review-Align.pdf, p. 17 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank report on The Gambia recovering fiscal discipline, characterize the country's 2001 loss of aggregate fiscal control and its debt-service aftermath by aggregating these facts: (a) what the overall fiscal deficit excluding grants was in 2000 versus 2001 (as a percent of GDP); (b) the size of the 2001 off-budget expenditures both as a percent of GDP and as a share of total expenditure; and (c) how interest payments as a share of GDP changed from 2001 to 2003.
The report finds a significant loss of aggregate fiscal control in 2001. (a) The overall fiscal deficit excluding grants increased from 4.1 percent of GDP in 2000 to 16.5 percent in 2001. (b) The 2001 fiscal slippage was driven by off-budget expenditures amounting to 6.8 percent of GDP, or 22 percent of total expenditure (US$28 million of off-budget expenditures financed by the Central Bank). (c) Interest payments then rose continuously, increasing from 294 million dalasis (4.5 percent of GDP) in 2001 to 620.8 million dalasis (6.0 percent of GDP) in 2003.
WB-D15982741-The-Gambia-Recovering-fiscal-discipline.pdf, pp. 16, 17 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Public Expenditure Review of Guyana, the executive summary documents how the Authorities rationalized spending. Aggregating across the report's expenditure-structure discussion, by how much did central Government expenditures as a share of GDP fall between the 1989-91 average and 2001, what level did interest payments decline to (from their 1989-91 level) by the late 1990s and early 2000s, and from what 1990 level were Financial Transfers reduced?
Central Government expenditures as a share of GDP declined from an average of 57.6 percent during 1989-91 to 47.6 percent in 2001. Interest payments were reduced (through successive debt restructuring programs) from 18.5 percent of GDP per year during 1989-91 to less than 10 percent of GDP in the late 1990s and early 2000s. Financial Transfers were reduced from their high level of 11.3 percent of GDP in 1990 (thanks to the privatization program).
WB-D2017564-Guyana-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, p. 8 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Latvia Public Expenditure Review, characterize Latvia's pre-EU-accession fiscal position by combining three pieces of information from different sections: (1) how government revenue as a percentage of GDP moved between 1997 and 2000 versus how total expenditure as a percentage of GDP behaved over the same period, (2) the trajectory of the general government fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP from 1997 to 1999 and its level in 2000, and (3) the year in which public debt as a percentage of GDP peaked, that peak value, and what the debt-to-GDP ratio had fallen to by 1998.
Government revenue dropped from 41.3 percent of GDP (1997) to 37.5 percent of GDP (2000), while total expenditure remained broadly stable (from 40.7 percent of GDP to 40.9 percent during the same period). The fiscal deficit deteriorated from 0.3 percent of GDP in 1997 to almost 4 percent of GDP in 1999, then improved to -3.3 percent in 2000. Public debt as a percentage of GDP peaked in 1995, when it accounted for 16.1 percent of GDP, and then gradually declined as the fiscal situation improved, amounting to 10.4 percent of GDP in 1998.
WB-D1723014-Latvia-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, pp. 16, 29, 30 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Nicaragua agriculture public expenditure review, combine the agriculture sector's economic weight with rural deprivation indicators: what share of national value added did agriculture account for over the past decade, what share of the labor force did it employ as the single biggest employer, what was the rural poverty headcount in 2009, and what share of their income do rural households receive from agriculture?
According to the World Bank review, agriculture accounted for around 17 percent of national value added over the past decade and remained the single biggest employer with around 30 percent of the labor force. Yet poverty in Nicaragua has a largely rural face: the rural poverty headcount stood at 63 percent in 2009 (more than twice the urban poverty rate of 26 percent in 2009). Rural households receive 60 percent of their income from agriculture (with 27 percent from nonfarm activities and 13 percent from transfers). So despite agriculture representing only about 17 percent of value added while employing about 30 percent of the labor force, rural areas where rural households depend on agriculture for 60 percent of income carried a 63 percent poverty headcount.
WB-D23927226-Nicaragua-Agriculture-public-expenditure.pdf, pp. 19, 24 · multi-source · hard
In the Nigeria Agriculture Public Expenditure Review (NAGPER), how does Nigeria's actual public spending effort on agriculture compare to (a) the size of the agricultural sector in its own economy and (b) the regional commitment that African leaders made in 2003? Give the specific percentage Nigeria's agricultural spending averaged as a share of total federal spending over 2001-2005, the range of agricultural GDP as a share of total GDP since 2000, and the minimum share that the 2003 Maputo pledge called for.
Nigeria's agricultural spending averaged only 1.7 percent of total federal spending over the study period (2001-2005). Yet agriculture is a large part of the economy: since 2000 agricultural GDP expressed as a share of total GDP has fluctuated between 20 and 35 percent (and rises to more than 50 percent of the non-oil economy). Despite this, in 2003 African leaders met in Maputo and pledged to allocate at least 10 percent of public expenditures to agriculture. So Nigeria's 1.7 percent of total federal spending falls far short of both the 20-35 percent share that agriculture contributes to GDP and the 10 percent Maputo target.
WB-D9992543-Nigeria-Agriculture-public-expenditure-r.pdf, pp. 15, 16 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank country economic memorandum on Peru, aggregate the four distinct indicators of the magnitude of Peru's macroeconomic deterioration during the Belaunde years and into mid-1985: (1) the change in gross public expenditures as a percent of GDP between 1979 and 1983, (2) the public sector deficit as a percent of GDP in 1984, (3) the change in the annual rise in the consumer price index between 1980 and 1984, and (4) the annual inflation rate reached in the first six months of 1985. Give each value as printed.
Gross public expenditures rose from 38 percent of GDP in 1979 to 51 percent in 1983. The public sector deficit was 7 percent of GDP in 1984 (described as much lower than in 1983 but still excessive). The annual rise in the consumer price index jumped from 61 percent in 1980 to 112 per cent in 1984. Rising inflation reached a 250 percent annual rate in the first six months of 1985.
WB-D741091-Peru-Country-economic-memorandum.pdf, pp. 13, 14 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank's "Making Growth Work for the Poor" Philippines poverty assessment, pull together the country's poverty picture across measures: what was the national poverty rate in 2015 (and how many Filipinos did that represent), what two international poverty lines does the report use to benchmark the Philippines against other East Asian countries, and what poverty target has the Philippine government set for 2022 along with the annual reduction that target requires?
The national poverty rate fell to 21.6 percent in 2015, declining by an average of 1.2 percentage points per year over 2012-2015. In 2015, 22 million Filipinos - more than one-fifth of the country's total population - still lived below the national poverty line. The report benchmarks the Philippines using two international lines: the international poverty line (US$1.90/day), by which Philippine poverty declined only 0.9 percentage points per year over 2006-2015, and the lower-middle-income-class poverty line (US$3.20/day), by which it declined only 1.3 percentage points per year. To meet its strategic goals, the Philippine government aims to reduce poverty to 13-15 percent by 2022, which will require annual poverty reduction of over 1 percentage point.
WB-D29961574-Making-growth-work-for-the-poor-a-povert.pdf, pp. 18, 19 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Public Expenditure Review for Sierra Leone, the executive summary describes the country's post-conflict fiscal consolidation after the 2002 end of its civil war. Combining the figures it reports, by how much did (a) the level of external assistance fall as a share of GDP between 2002 and 2008, (b) the stock of domestic debt fall as a share of GDP between 2002 and 2008, and (c) the stock of external debt fall as a share of GDP from 2002 to 2006, and to what level did HIPC and MDRI relief subsequently reduce that external debt? Give each start and end value.
The PER's executive summary reports three distinct fiscal-consolidation series for Sierra Leone after its 2002 emergence from civil war. (a) External assistance declined from 15.5 percent of GDP in 2002 to 5.2 percent of GDP in 2008, as donors phased out post-conflict allocations and GDP expanded rapidly. (b) The stock of domestic debt declined from 52 percent of GDP in 2002 to 24 percent in 2008. (c) The stock of external debt fell from 165 percent of GDP in 2002 to 110 percent of GDP in 2006; HIPC and MDRI relief then reduced this to 31 percent of GDP in 2007 and 2008.
WB-D13159456-Sierra-Leone-Public-expenditure-review.pdf, pp. 10, 11 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank South Sudan Poverty Assessment (2009–2017), at the international poverty line of US$1.90 PPP (2011), state the full trajectory of the poverty headcount across 2009, 2015, and 2016, and decompose the rise into its 2009–2015 component (both the per-year rate and the overall percentage-point increase) and the additional single-year increase to 2016. Give every value.
Using the international poverty line of US$1.90 PPP (2011), South Sudan's poverty headcount increased from 51 percent in 2009 to 66 percent in 2015 and further to 82 percent in 2016. Between 2009 and 2015 the headcount increased by 2.5 percentage points per year, or 15 percentage points overall, and then rose in a single year by an additional 16 percentage points to reach 82 percent in 2016. (Context: this left more than 4 out of 5 people living under the international poverty line in 2016, with South Sudan ranking 181 out of 188 countries in the Human Development Index and a life expectancy of only 56 years.)
WB-D30443500-Impact-of-Conflict-and-Shocks-on-Poverty.pdf, p. 15 · multi-source · hard
In the World Bank Tunisia poverty assessment, the report estimates post-revolution poverty dynamics using two different approaches. By how many percentage points did the 2011 revolution raise poverty according to the projection/simulation methodology, what happened to estimated 2012 poverty rates relative to 2010 under that projection methodology, and how does the alternative cross-survey imputation methodology characterize 2012 poverty rates relative to 2010? Give the specific percentage-point ranges for each.
Under the projection/simulation methodology, the poverty impact of the revolution in 2011 oscillates between 0.9 and 2.2 percentage points, depending on the assumptions used to project post-revolution poverty rates (the smallest 0.9 pp effect comes from simulation 1 with GDP growth only; the largest 2.2 pp from simulation 3 including sector-specific GDP and unemployment). The recovery of GDP and employment in 2012 contributed to reversing the poverty increase of the previous year, so estimated poverty rates in 2012 are slightly below 2010 levels (the official 2010 poverty rate was 15.5 percent). By contrast, the alternative cross-survey imputation methodology suggests that poverty rates in 2012 were between 1.1 and 2.2 percentage points above the levels estimated in 2010, depending on the assumptions made to impute consumption across surveys.
WB-D26192233-Tunisia-Poverty-assessment.pdf, pp. 10, 36, 37, 43 · multi-source · hard
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